Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is preparing an older client for discharge. Which method is best for the provider to use when evaluating the client's ability to perform a dressing change at home?

• A. Determine the client's feelings about changing the dressing.
• B. Ask the client to write a description of the procedure.
• C. Have a family member evaluate the client's ability to change the dressing.
• D. Observe the client performing an unassisted dressing change.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Direct observation of the client performing the skill is the most effective method to assess the client's ability to independently change the dressing. This allows the healthcare provider to evaluate the client's technique, understanding, and readiness to perform the task at home. Choices A, B, and C are not as reliable as directly observing the client performing the dressing change. Determining the client's feelings may not accurately reflect their ability, asking the client to write about the procedure may not demonstrate their practical skills, and having a family member evaluate might not provide an accurate assessment of the client's ability.

2. A community hospital is opening a mental health services department. Which document should the nurse use to develop the unit's nursing guidelines?

• A. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990
• B. ANA Code of Ethics with Interpretative Statements
• C. ANA's Scope and Standards of Nursing Practice
• D. Patient's Bill of Rights of 1990

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The ANA's Scope and Standards of Nursing Practice are essential guidelines for nursing practice in various specialties, including mental health. The document outlines the expectations and responsibilities of nurses in providing high-quality care within their specific practice areas. In the context of opening a mental health services department, using the Scope and Standards specific to psychiatric–mental health nursing would ensure that the unit's nursing guidelines align with best practices and professional standards in mental health care. Choices A, B, and D are not focused on providing specific guidelines for nursing practice in a mental health services department, making them incorrect options.

3. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin). Which dietary instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K
• B. Increase intake of leafy green vegetables
• C. Consume a consistent amount of foods high in potassium
• D. Limit intake of high-protein foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct dietary instruction for a client taking warfarin is to avoid foods high in vitamin K. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Consuming foods high in vitamin K, such as leafy green vegetables, can antagonize the effects of warfarin, potentially leading to treatment inefficacy or fluctuations in anticoagulation levels. Therefore, clients on warfarin therapy should be advised to avoid foods high in vitamin K to maintain the effectiveness of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing leafy green vegetables (choice B) would introduce more vitamin K, consuming a consistent amount of foods high in potassium (choice C) is not directly related to warfarin therapy, and limiting high-protein foods (choice D) is not a specific concern for clients on warfarin therapy.

4. In completing a client's preoperative routine, the nurse finds that the operative permit is not signed. The client begins to ask more questions about the surgical procedure. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Witness the client's signature on the permit.
• B. Answer the client's questions about the surgery.
• C. Inform the surgeon that the operative permit is not signed and the client has questions about the surgery.
• D. Reassure the client that the surgeon will answer any questions before the anesthesia is administered.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should inform the surgeon promptly that the operative permit is not signed and the client has questions about the surgery. It is crucial for the surgeon to be aware of these issues as it is their responsibility to explain the procedure to the client and ensure that the necessary consent is obtained before proceeding with the surgery. Answering the client's questions directly (choice B) may not be appropriate as the surgeon is the one responsible for providing detailed information about the procedure. Witnessing the client's signature (choice A) is premature since the permit is not signed. Reassuring the client (choice D) is not the most appropriate action at this point; the priority is to involve the surgeon in addressing the unsigned permit and the client's questions.

5. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.

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