HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Test
1. The healthcare provider is preparing an older client for discharge. Which method is best for the provider to use when evaluating the client's ability to perform a dressing change at home?
- A. Determine the client's feelings about changing the dressing.
- B. Ask the client to write a description of the procedure.
- C. Have a family member evaluate the client's ability to change the dressing.
- D. Observe the client performing an unassisted dressing change.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Direct observation of the client performing the skill is the most effective method to assess the client's ability to independently change the dressing. This allows the healthcare provider to evaluate the client's technique, understanding, and readiness to perform the task at home. Choices A, B, and C are not as reliable as directly observing the client performing the dressing change. Determining the client's feelings may not accurately reflect their ability, asking the client to write about the procedure may not demonstrate their practical skills, and having a family member evaluate might not provide an accurate assessment of the client's ability.
2. A client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline is instructed to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available, which dosing schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow?
- A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
- B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
- C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
- D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Theophylline should be administered on a regular around-the-clock schedule to provide the best bronchodilating effect and reduce the potential for adverse effects. The correct dosing schedule of 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight ensures that the client receives consistent dosing throughout the day. Other options do not provide the necessary around-the-clock coverage. It's important to note that food may affect the absorption of the medication, which is why the dosing schedule should not be tied to meal times.
3. What action should be implemented to prevent the formation of a sacral ulcer for an immobile client?
- A. Maintain the client in a lateral position using protective wrist and vest restraints.
- B. Position the client prone with a small pillow below the diaphragm.
- C. Raise the head and knee gatch when lying in a supine position.
- D. Transfer the client to a wheelchair close to the nursing station for observation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Positioning the client prone with a small pillow below the diaphragm helps maintain proper alignment and provides optimal pressure relief over the sacral area, reducing the risk of developing a pressure ulcer. This position redistributes pressure away from bony prominences, such as the sacrum, which is crucial in preventing ulcer formation in immobile clients. Choice A is incorrect because using restraints can lead to further complications and does not address pressure relief. Choice C is incorrect as raising the head and knee gatch in a supine position does not directly alleviate pressure over the sacrum. Choice D is incorrect as transferring to a wheelchair does not address pressure relief or optimal positioning to prevent sacral ulcers.
4. The nurse determines that a postoperative client's respiratory rate has increased from 18 to 24 breaths/min. Based on this assessment finding, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage the client to increase ambulation in the room.
- B. Offer the client a high-carbohydrate snack for energy.
- C. Force fluids to thin the client's pulmonary secretions.
- D. Determine if pain is causing the client's tachypnea.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An increased respiratory rate can be a sign of various issues postoperatively, including pain. Assessing and managing pain is crucial as it can lead to tachypnea. Pain, anxiety, and fluid accumulation in the lungs can all contribute to an increased respiratory rate. Therefore, determining if pain is causing the tachypnea is the most important intervention to address the underlying cause. Encouraging ambulation, offering snacks, or forcing fluids are not the priority in this situation as pain assessment takes precedence in managing the increased respiratory rate.
5. During a 30-second interval, the nurse counts six respirations, and the client coughs three times. In repeating the count for a second 30-second interval, the nurse counts eight respirations. What respiratory rate should the nurse document?
- A. 14
- B. 16
- C. 17
- D. 28
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should document a respiratory rate of 16. The second count of eight respirations in a 30-second interval is the most accurate as it was not interrupted by the client coughing. Therefore, this rate reflects the client's typical respiratory pattern and should be documented. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not consider the interruption caused by the client coughing during the first count, which could have affected the accuracy of the result. The second count of eight respirations provides a more reliable indication of the client's respiratory rate.
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