Nursing Elites

1. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?

• A. How will this affect your present sexual activity?
• B. How active is your current sex life?
• C. How has your sex life changed as you have become older?
• D. Tell me about your sexual needs as an older adult.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response in this scenario is option A, 'How will this affect your present sexual activity?' This response directly addresses the client's concern and allows them to express their thoughts and feelings. Option B does not directly address the client's worry about the medication's side effect. Options C and D deviate from the client's immediate concern and are not as relevant in this situation.

2. What is the primary purpose served when an individual takes action to reduce anxiety?

• A. Reduction of tension
• B. Denial of the situation
• C. Avoidance of physical discomfort
• D. Resolution in decision-making

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary purpose of taking action to reduce anxiety is to alleviate emotional tension and prevent the exacerbation of anxiety symptoms. By reducing tension, anxiety levels decrease, leading to a sense of comfort, safety, and security. Denial of the situation is not the goal when addressing anxiety; rather, acknowledging and managing it is crucial. While physical discomfort may accompany anxiety, the focus is on alleviating the emotional aspect to mitigate physical manifestations. Although mild anxiety can sometimes improve decision-making skills, higher levels of anxiety typically impede cognitive functions, making resolution in decision-making less likely.

3. Which action should the nurse implement when providing wound care instructions to a client who does not speak English?

• A. Ask an interpreter to provide wound care instructions.
• B. Speak directly to the client, with an interpreter translating.
• C. Request the accompanying family member to translate.
• D. Instruct a bilingual employee to read the instructions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When providing wound care instructions to a client who does not speak English, the nurse should speak directly to the client with the assistance of an interpreter for accurate translation. The interpreter is trained to provide objective translations in the client's primary language, ensuring the client understands the instructions and can ask questions. Using family members for translation is discouraged as they may alter instructions or feel uncomfortable discussing certain topics. Instructing a bilingual employee to read the instructions is not ideal as they may lack the necessary training in accurate interpretation, which could lead to misunderstandings in crucial wound care instructions.

4. Which characteristic would be a concern for the nurse when caring for a client with schizophrenia in the early phase of treatment?

• A. Continual pacing
• B. Suspicious feelings
• C. Inability to socialize with others
• D. Disturbed relationship with the family

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the early phase of treatment for a client with schizophrenia, the nurse needs to address the client's suspicious feelings to establish trust and create a therapeutic environment. Suspicious feelings can hinder the development of a positive nurse-client relationship. Continual pacing, while a symptom, can be managed by the nurse and does not directly impact the therapeutic relationship. Inability to socialize with others and a disturbed relationship with the family are important factors but are of lesser concern in the early treatment phase as compared to addressing suspicious feelings to build trust and rapport.

5. Urinary catheterization is prescribed for a postoperative female client who has been unable to void for 8 hours. The nurse inserts the catheter, but no urine is seen in the tubing. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Clamp the catheter and recheck it in 60 minutes.
• B. Pull the catheter back 3 inches and redirect upward.
• C. Leave the catheter in place and reattempt with another catheter.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider of a possible obstruction.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When no urine is seen in the tubing after inserting a catheter in a female client who has not voided for 8 hours, it is possible that the catheter is in the vagina rather than the bladder. Leaving the initial catheter in place can help locate the meatus for the second attempt. The client should have at least 240 mL of urine output after 8 hours, indicating the need for catheterization. Clamping the catheter (Option A) does not address the issue of incorrect catheter placement. Pulling the catheter back and redirecting it (Option B) is not effective unless the catheter is completely removed, requiring a new catheter. There is no indication of a urinary tract obstruction to notify the healthcare provider (Option D) as the catheter could be inserted easily.

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