Nursing Elites

1. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?

• A. How will this affect your present sexual activity?
• B. How active is your current sex life?
• C. How has your sex life changed as you have become older?
• D. Tell me about your sexual needs as an older adult.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response in this scenario is option A, 'How will this affect your present sexual activity?' This response directly addresses the client's concern and allows them to express their thoughts and feelings. Option B does not directly address the client's worry about the medication's side effect. Options C and D deviate from the client's immediate concern and are not as relevant in this situation.

2. A client is being assessed by a nurse for increased anxiety, restlessness, and insomnia. Which of the following interventions is the first priority for the nurse?

• A. Administer anti-anxiety medications as prescribed by the healthcare provider
• B. Engage in a conversation with the client regarding methods to enhance rest and sleep
• C. Escort the client to a private room and stay with them
• D. Review the client's medical history to determine previous treatment for these issues

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The first priority when dealing with a client experiencing potential mental health issues is to ensure their safety. Taking the client to a private room helps to reduce external stimuli and staying with them ensures constant monitoring and support. This intervention can prevent any escalation of anxiety or restlessness and promote a sense of security for the client. Engaging in a conversation about improving rest and sleep is important but ensuring immediate safety takes precedence. Administering medications should only be done after the client's safety is assured. Reviewing the client's medical history, while important, is not the immediate priority when the client is exhibiting acute symptoms of anxiety and restlessness.

3. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority when planning care for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter?

• A. Self-care deficit
• B. Functional incontinence
• C. Fluid volume deficit
• D. High risk for infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'High risk for infection.' When caring for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter, the highest priority is to prevent infections, as these catheters are a significant source of infection. Options A and B, self-care deficit and functional incontinence, may be concerns but are not directly related to the indwelling catheter. Option C, fluid volume deficit, is not typically associated with the presence of an indwelling urinary catheter.

4. Which of the following is an age-related developmental task for a 68-year-old client?

• A. Dealing with loss of friends
• B. Commitment to parenthood
• C. Setting career goals
• D. Solidification of sense of self

Correct answer: A

Rationale: As individuals age, they face various developmental tasks unique to that stage of life. For a 68-year-old client, dealing with the loss of friends becomes a significant aspect of their development. This age group often experiences the passing of peers and friends, leading to feelings of loneliness and the need to adjust to a changing social circle. Commitment to parenthood (Choice B) is more relevant to younger adults in their child-rearing years. Setting career goals (Choice C) is typically associated with early to mid-career stages rather than later in life. Solidification of sense of self (Choice D) is a task that is more commonly associated with earlier adulthood when individuals are establishing their identity. Therefore, the most appropriate developmental task for a 68-year-old client is dealing with the loss of friends.

5. Based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement when providing care for an older incontinent client?

• A. Maintain standard precautions.
• B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
• C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
• D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in an older incontinent client is to maintain standard precautions. The best way to reduce the risk of infection in vulnerable clients is through proper handwashing and adherence to standard precautions. Option B, initiating contact isolation measures, is excessive unless the client has a confirmed infection requiring isolation. Option C, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, actually increases the risk of infection due to the introduction of a foreign body. Option D, instructing the client in the use of adult diapers, does not directly address the risk of infection and is not as effective as maintaining standard precautions in preventing infection transmission.

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