Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes is taking insulin lispro (Humalog) injections. The nurse should advise the client to eat:

• A. Within 10 to 15 minutes after the injection.
• B. 1 hour after the injection.
• C. At any time, because timing of meals with lispro injections is unnecessary.
• D. 2 hours before the injection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to eat within 10 to 15 minutes after the injection. Insulin lispro, also known as Humalog, is a rapid-acting insulin that starts working very quickly. Eating shortly after the injection helps match the food intake with the insulin action, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia. Choice B is incorrect because waiting 1 hour after the injection may lead to a mismatch between insulin activity and food intake. Choice C is incorrect as timing meals with lispro injections is essential to optimize glycemic control. Choice D is incorrect as eating 2 hours before the injection is not in alignment with the rapid action of insulin lispro and may lead to fluctuations in blood sugar levels.

2. A nurse teaches a client who is recovering from a nephrectomy secondary to kidney trauma. Which statement should the nurse include in this client’s teaching?

• A. Since you only have one kidney, a salt and fluid restriction is required.
• B. Your therapy will include hemodialysis while you recover.
• C. Medication will be prescribed to control your high blood pressure.
• D. You need to avoid participating in contact sports like football.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients with one kidney need to avoid contact sports because the kidneys are easily injured. The client will not be required to restrict salt and fluids, end up on dialysis, or have new hypertension because of the nephrectomy.

3. The client has had a femoral-popliteal bypass surgery 6 hours ago. Which assessment provides the most accurate information about the client's postoperative status?

• A. Radial pulse.
• B. Femoral pulse.
• C. Apical pulse.
• D. Dorsalis pedis pulse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing the dorsalis pedis pulse is crucial after a femoral-popliteal bypass surgery to determine adequate circulation distal to the surgical site. A strong dorsalis pedis pulse indicates sufficient blood flow to the foot, which is essential for monitoring postoperative status. The radial pulse (A) is not the most relevant assessment as it does not provide direct information on circulation in the lower extremities. The femoral pulse (B) may not accurately reflect circulation distal to the surgical site. The apical pulse (C) is used primarily to assess the heartbeat and cardiac function, not circulation in the lower extremities.

4. A nurse is preparing for intershift report when a nurse’s aide pulls an emergency call light in a client’s room. Upon answering the light, the nurse finds a client who returned from surgery earlier in the day experiencing tachycardia and tachypnea. The client’s blood pressure is 88/60 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Calling the physician
• B. Checking the hourly urine output
• C. Checking the IV site for infiltration
• D. Placing the client in a modified Trendelenburg position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client is exhibiting signs of shock, indicated by tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypotension. Placing the client in a modified Trendelenburg position is the initial action to improve venous return, cardiac output, and subsequently increase blood pressure. This position helps redistribute blood flow to vital organs. Calling the physician should follow once immediate intervention has been initiated. Checking the hourly urine output and IV site are important assessments but are secondary to addressing the client's hemodynamic instability and potential for shock.

5. A client who has just undergone surgery suddenly experiences chest pain, dyspnea, and tachypnea. The nurse suspects that the client has a pulmonary embolism and immediately sets about:

• A. Preparing the client for a perfusion scan
• B. Attaching the client to a cardiac monitor
• C. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula
• D. Ensuring that the intravenous (IV) line is patent

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client who has just undergone surgery experiences sudden chest pain, dyspnea, and tachypnea, indicating possible pulmonary embolism, the immediate priority for the nurse is to administer oxygen via nasal cannula. This intervention aims to improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress, which is crucial in the setting of a potential pulmonary embolism. Preparing the client for a perfusion scan is not the immediate priority as stabilizing the client's respiratory status comes first. While attaching the client to a cardiac monitor is important for monitoring, administering oxygen takes precedence in this situation. Ensuring IV line patency is relevant for overall client care but is not the priority when a client is experiencing respiratory distress requiring immediate intervention.

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