HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Exam
1. When giving a report about a client who had a gastrectomy from the intensive care unit to the post-surgical unit nurse, what is the most effective way to assure essential information is reported?
- A. Give the report face-to-face with both nurses in a quiet room.
- B. Audiotape the report for future reference and documentation.
- C. Use a printed checklist with information individualized for the client.
- D. Document essential transfer information in the client's electronic health record.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Using a printed checklist with individualized information is the most effective way to ensure that all key details about the client who had a gastrectomy are covered during the report. This method helps in structuring the information systematically, reducing the risk of missing important details. Face-to-face communication in a quiet room (Choice A) is important for effective communication but may not guarantee the coverage of all essential information. Audiotaping the report (Choice B) may not be practical for immediate reference or interaction. Documenting in the electronic health record (Choice D) is essential but may not facilitate a comprehensive real-time exchange of information between the nurses.
2. A nurse reviews laboratory results for a client with glomerulonephritis. The client’s glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is 40 mL/min as measured by a 24-hour creatinine clearance. How should the nurse interpret this finding? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Excessive GFR
- B. Reduced GFR
- C. Fluid retention and risks for hypertension
- D. Pulmonary edema
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A GFR of 40 mL/min indicates a reduced glomerular filtration rate. In a healthy adult, the normal GFR ranges between 100 and 120 mL/min. A GFR of 40 mL/min signifies a significant reduction, leading to fluid retention and risks for hypertension and pulmonary edema due to excess vascular fluid. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect as a GFR of 40 mL/min is not excessive but rather reduced. Choices C and D do not directly address the interpretation of GFR but instead describe potential consequences of a reduced GFR.
3. Why is lactated Ringer’s solution given to a patient experiencing vomiting and diarrhea?
- A. To increase interstitial and intracellular hydration
- B. To maintain plasma volume over time
- C. To pull water from the interstitial space into the extracellular fluid
- D. To replace water and electrolytes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Lactated Ringer’s solution is an isotonic solution commonly used to replace water and electrolytes lost due to conditions like vomiting and diarrhea. It helps to restore fluid balance by replacing the lost volume and electrolytes. Option A is incorrect because hypotonic fluids, not lactated Ringer’s solution, increase interstitial and intracellular hydration. Option B is incorrect as colloidal solutions, not lactated Ringer’s solution, are used to maintain plasma volume over time. Option C is incorrect as hypertonic solutions, not lactated Ringer’s solution, pull water from the interstitial space into the extracellular fluid.
4. Which client is at greatest risk for coronary artery disease?
- A. A 32-year-old female with mitral valve prolapse who quit smoking 10 years ago.
- B. A 43-year-old male with a family history of CAD and a cholesterol level of 158 (8.8 mmol/L).
- C. A 56-year-old male with an HDL of 60 (3.3 mmol/L) who takes atorvastatin.
- D. A 65-year-old female who is obese with an LDL of 188 (10.4 mmol/L).
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The 65-year-old female who is obese with a high LDL level of 188 (10.4 mmol/L) is at the greatest risk for coronary artery disease. Obesity and high LDL cholesterol levels are significant risk factors for developing coronary artery disease. While factors like mitral valve prolapse (choice A) and a family history of CAD (choice B) can contribute to the risk, they are not as significant as obesity and high LDL levels. Choice C, a 56-year-old male with high HDL and taking atorvastatin, is actually at lower risk due to the high HDL levels and being on statin therapy, which helps reduce cholesterol levels and lower the risk of coronary artery disease.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving hemodialysis for the first time. Which of the following findings should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.
- B. Nausea and vomiting.
- C. Fatigue.
- D. Headache.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are critical symptoms that should be reported immediately when a client is receiving hemodialysis for the first time. These symptoms could indicate a severe complication, such as hypotension, infection, electrolyte imbalance, or other adverse reactions to the procedure. It is essential to address these symptoms promptly to prevent further complications or harm to the client. Choices A, C, and D are not immediate concerns during the first hemodialysis session and can be addressed appropriately after addressing the urgent issue of nausea and vomiting.
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