Nursing Elites

1. Before initiating a client with tuberculosis on anti-tuberculosis therapy with isoniazid (INH), a nurse ensures that which of the following baseline study has been completed?

• A. Electrolyte levels
• B. Coagulation times
• C. Liver enzyme levels
• D. Serum creatinine level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before starting INH therapy for tuberculosis, it is essential to assess liver enzyme levels as INH can cause hepatotoxicity. Monitoring liver enzyme levels before and during the initial 3 months of therapy is crucial to detect any liver damage early and prevent further complications. Choice A, electrolyte levels, are not directly impacted by INH therapy. Choice B, coagulation times, are not routinely monitored before starting INH therapy. Choice D, serum creatinine level, is not specifically required as a baseline study before initiating INH therapy for tuberculosis.

2. Rifabutin (Mycobutin) is prescribed for a client with active Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) disease and tuberculosis. The nurse monitors for which side effects of the medication? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Signs of hepatitis
• B. Flu-like syndrome
• C. Low neutrophil count
• D. Vitamin B6 deficiency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Rifabutin is known to cause side effects such as hepatitis, flu-like syndrome, low neutrophil count, and ocular pain or blurred vision. Vitamin B6 deficiency is not associated with rifabutin but is a side effect of isoniazid (INH). Therefore, the nurse should not monitor for Vitamin B6 deficiency when administering rifabutin.

3. A client presenting with complaints of not feeling well is seen in a clinic. The client is taking several medications for the control of heart disease and hypertension, including a beta-blocker, digoxin (Lanoxin), and a diuretic. A tentative diagnosis of digoxin toxicity is made. Which of the following assessment data would support this diagnosis?

• A. Dyspnea, edema, and palpitations
• B. Chest pain, hypotension, and paresthesia
• C. Double vision, loss of appetite, and nausea
• D. Constipation, dry mouth, and sleep disorder

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Double vision, loss of appetite, and nausea are classic signs of digoxin toxicity. Other signs may include bradycardia, visual disturbances, and confusion. These symptoms are indicators that the client may be experiencing adverse effects due to elevated levels of digoxin in the system, requiring immediate medical attention to prevent serious complications.

4. Phenazopyridine hydrochloride (Pyridium) is prescribed for a client for symptomatic relief of pain resulting from a lower urinary tract infection. The nurse reinforces to the client:

• A. To take the medication after meals
• B. To take the medication before meals
• C. To discontinue the medication if a headache occurs
• D. That a reddish-orange discoloration of the urine may occur

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client that a reddish-orange discoloration of urine may occur. The nurse should also educate the client that this discoloration can stain fabric. It is recommended to take the medication after meals to reduce the possibility of gastrointestinal upset. While a headache is an occasional side effect of the medication, it does not warrant discontinuation of the medication.

5. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client who is receiving intravenous amphotericin B. Which of the following should prompt the healthcare professional to notify the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Fever
• B. Headache
• C. Nausea
• D. Oliguria

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Amphotericin B is known to cause nephrotoxicity, which can lead to kidney damage. Oliguria, which is decreased urine output, is a concerning sign of kidney dysfunction and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Fever, headache, and nausea are common side effects of amphotericin B but are not as critical as oliguria in indicating potential kidney damage.

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