Nursing Elites

1. A client who has begun taking fosinopril (Monopril) is very distressed, telling the nurse that he cannot taste food normally since beginning the medication 2 weeks ago. The nurse provides the best support to the client by:

• A. Telling the client not to take the medication with food
• B. Suggesting that the client taper the dose until taste returns to normal
• C. Informing the client that impaired taste is expected and generally disappears in 2 to 3 months
• D. Requesting that the health care provider (HCP) change the prescription to another brand of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the client that impaired taste is an expected side effect of ACE inhibitors like fosinopril, such as Monopril, and typically resolves within 2 to 3 months. It is essential for the nurse to offer reassurance and education to the client about this common side effect to alleviate distress and encourage compliance with the medication regimen.

2. The healthcare provider should anticipate that the most likely medication to be prescribed prophylactically for a child with spina bifida (myelomeningocele) who has a neurogenic bladder would be:

• A. Prednisone
• B. Sulfisoxazole
• C. Furosemide (Lasix)
• D. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Children with spina bifida, especially those with a neurogenic bladder, are at an increased risk of urinary tract infections. Sulfisoxazole, an antibiotic, is commonly prescribed prophylactically to prevent UTIs in this population. Prednisone (Choice A) is a corticosteroid and is not typically used for prophylaxis in this scenario. Furosemide (Lasix) (Choice C) is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention and hypertension, not for preventing UTIs. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) (Choice D) is used to boost the immune system, not for UTI prophylaxis in this case.

3. The burn client is receiving treatments of topical mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) to the site of injury. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following indicates that a systemic effect has occurred?

• A. Hyperventilation
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Local pain at the burn site
• D. Local rash at the burn site

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperventilation is an indication of a systemic effect of mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) due to its potential to cause acidosis by suppressing renal excretion of acid. If hyperventilation occurs, the medication should be discontinued to prevent further complications.

4. When providing instructions to a client taking ciprofloxacin (Cipro), which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Avoid taking the medication with milk or antacids.
• B. Take the medication with a multivitamin.
• C. Consume extra dairy products while taking this medication.
• D. Take the medication with food if gastrointestinal upset occurs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid taking ciprofloxacin (Cipro) with milk or antacids. These can interfere with the medication's absorption. Consuming extra dairy products or taking it with a multivitamin is not recommended for the same reason. If gastrointestinal upset occurs, the medication can be taken with food to help alleviate the symptoms.

5. A nurse preparing a client for surgery reviews the client's medication record. The client is to be nothing per mouth (NPO) after midnight. Which of the following medications, if noted on the client's record, should the nurse question?

• A. Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
• B. Alendronate (Fosamax)
• C. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
• D. Prednisone

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause adrenal atrophy, reducing the body's ability to withstand stress. During surgery, the dosage may need to be adjusted due to its impact on the body's stress response. Choices A, B, and C are not typically contraindicated before surgery and do not have the same potential impact on the body's stress response.

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