Nursing Elites

1. A client who has begun taking fosinopril (Monopril) is very distressed, telling the nurse that he cannot taste food normally since beginning the medication 2 weeks ago. The nurse provides the best support to the client by:

• A. Telling the client not to take the medication with food
• B. Suggesting that the client taper the dose until taste returns to normal
• C. Informing the client that impaired taste is expected and generally disappears in 2 to 3 months
• D. Requesting that the health care provider (HCP) change the prescription to another brand of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the client that impaired taste is an expected side effect of ACE inhibitors like fosinopril, such as Monopril, and typically resolves within 2 to 3 months. It is essential for the nurse to offer reassurance and education to the client about this common side effect to alleviate distress and encourage compliance with the medication regimen.

2. Intravenous heparin therapy is prescribed for a client. While implementing this prescription, a nurse ensures that which of the following medications is available on the nursing unit?

• A. Protamine sulfate
• B. Potassium chloride
• C. Phytonadione (vitamin K)
• D. Aminocaproic acid (Amicar)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, working to reverse its effects in case of excessive bleeding. It should be readily available when administering heparin to manage any potential bleeding complications effectively. Potassium chloride is not the antidote for heparin and is typically used to correct low potassium levels. Phytonadione (vitamin K) is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Aminocaproic acid (Amicar) is used to treat or prevent excessive bleeding but is not the antidote for heparin.

3. The healthcare provider should anticipate that the most likely medication to be prescribed prophylactically for a child with spina bifida (myelomeningocele) who has a neurogenic bladder would be:

• A. Prednisone
• B. Sulfisoxazole
• C. Furosemide (Lasix)
• D. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Children with spina bifida, especially those with a neurogenic bladder, are at an increased risk of urinary tract infections. Sulfisoxazole, an antibiotic, is commonly prescribed prophylactically to prevent UTIs in this population. Prednisone (Choice A) is a corticosteroid and is not typically used for prophylaxis in this scenario. Furosemide (Lasix) (Choice C) is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention and hypertension, not for preventing UTIs. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) (Choice D) is used to boost the immune system, not for UTI prophylaxis in this case.

4. Isotretinoin is prescribed for a client with severe acne. Before the administration of this medication, the nurse anticipates that which laboratory test will be prescribed?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Triglyceride level
• C. Complete blood count
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before administering Isotretinoin, it is important to check the client's triglyceride levels. Isotretinoin is known to elevate triglyceride levels, hence monitoring them before and periodically during treatment is essential to prevent potential adverse effects.

5. Salicylic acid is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of psoriasis. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following would indicate the presence of systemic toxicity from this medication?

• A. Tinnitus
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Constipation
• D. Decreased respirations

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tinnitus. Salicylic acid can lead to systemic toxicity, known as salicylism, which may manifest with symptoms like tinnitus, dizziness, hyperventilation, and mental disturbances. Tinnitus is a common early sign of salicylism and should be monitored closely by the nurse to prevent further complications.

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