HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. A client who has begun taking fosinopril (Monopril) is very distressed, telling the nurse that he cannot taste food normally since beginning the medication 2 weeks ago. The nurse provides the best support to the client by:
- A. Telling the client not to take the medication with food
- B. Suggesting that the client taper the dose until taste returns to normal
- C. Informing the client that impaired taste is expected and generally disappears in 2 to 3 months
- D. Requesting that the health care provider (HCP) change the prescription to another brand of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the client that impaired taste is an expected side effect of ACE inhibitors like fosinopril, such as Monopril, and typically resolves within 2 to 3 months. It is essential for the nurse to offer reassurance and education to the client about this common side effect to alleviate distress and encourage compliance with the medication regimen.
2. A client with trigeminal neuralgia tells the nurse that acetaminophen (Tylenol) is taken on a frequent daily basis for relief of generalized discomfort. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory results and determines that which of the following indicates toxicity associated with the medication?
- A. Sodium of 140 mEq/L
- B. Prothrombin time of 12 seconds
- C. Platelet count of 400,000 cells/mm³
- D. A direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL indicates liver damage, which can be caused by an overdose of acetaminophen. Acetaminophen toxicity can lead to liver injury, manifesting as elevated bilirubin levels and other liver function test abnormalities.
3. A client is diagnosed with pulmonary embolism and is to be treated with streptokinase (Streptase). A nurse would report which priority data collection finding to the registered nurse before initiating this therapy?
- A. Adventitious breath sounds
- B. Temperature of 99.4°F orally
- C. Blood pressure of 198/110 mm Hg
- D. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Streptokinase therapy is contraindicated in severe uncontrolled hypertension due to the risk of cerebral hemorrhage. A blood pressure of 198/110 mm Hg indicates severe hypertension, which needs to be addressed before initiating streptokinase to prevent potential complications.
4. A client is receiving morphine sulfate for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?
- A. Constipation
- B. Drowsiness
- C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine sulfate that can lead to respiratory compromise and requires immediate intervention. Constipation, drowsiness, and nausea are common side effects of morphine but are not immediately life-threatening compared to respiratory depression. Monitoring and addressing a low respiratory rate are crucial in preventing further respiratory distress or failure.
5. The healthcare provider is applying a topical corticosteroid to a client with eczema. The healthcare provider should monitor for the potential of increased systemic absorption of the medication if the medication were being applied to which of the following body areas?
- A. Back
- B. Axilla
- C. Soles of the feet
- D. Palms of the hands
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The axilla has thinner skin, making it more permeable to topical medications. Areas with thinner skin, like the axilla, allow for higher systemic absorption of topical corticosteroids.
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