HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. Which of the following is a key symptom of appendicitis?
- A. Right lower quadrant pain.
- B. Left lower quadrant pain.
- C. Generalized abdominal pain.
- D. Rebound tenderness.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Choice A: Right lower quadrant pain is a classic and key symptom of appendicitis. Pain in the right lower quadrant is typically the initial symptom and is a result of inflammation and irritation of the appendix. This pain can start around the umbilicus and then migrate to the right lower quadrant. It is important to note that appendicitis rarely presents with pain in the left lower quadrant or generalized abdominal pain. Rebound tenderness, indicated in Choice D, is a sign of peritoneal irritation and is associated with appendicitis, but it is not as characteristic as the right lower quadrant pain in the initial presentation of appendicitis.
2. What is a priority goal for the diabetic client who is taking insulin and experiencing nausea and vomiting from a viral illness or influenza?
- A. Ensuring adequate food intake.
- B. Managing personal health.
- C. Relieving pain.
- D. Increasing physical activity.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Ensuring adequate food intake is a priority goal for a diabetic client taking insulin and experiencing nausea and vomiting due to a viral illness or influenza because maintaining proper nutrition is essential to prevent complications such as ketoacidosis. During illness, it is crucial for diabetic individuals to continue to consume appropriate amounts of food to maintain stable blood sugar levels and prevent hypoglycemia. Managing personal health (choice B) is important but not the priority in this situation. Relieving pain (choice C) may be necessary if present but is not the priority over ensuring food intake. Increasing physical activity (choice D) is not recommended during illness, especially when the individual is experiencing nausea and vomiting.
3. When planning care for a client newly diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma, the nurse identifies a priority nursing problem of 'visual sensory/perceptual alterations.' This problem is based on which etiology?
- A. Blurred distance vision
- B. Limited eye movement
- C. Decreased peripheral vision
- D. Photosensitivity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Decreased peripheral vision.' Open-angle glaucoma leads to a gradual loss of peripheral vision due to damage to the optic nerve. This loss of peripheral vision is a hallmark sign of the condition and a primary reason for the visual sensory/perceptual alterations experienced by the client. Blurred distance vision (choice A) may occur but is not the priority nursing problem. Limited eye movement (choice B) and photosensitivity (choice D) are not typically associated with the sensory/perceptual alterations seen in open-angle glaucoma.
4. A nurse has a prescription to insert a nasogastric tube into the stomach of an assigned client. Which action should the nurse take to insert the tube safely and easily?
- A. Placing the tube in warm water
- B. Hyperextending the head while inserting the tube
- C. Removing the tube if any resistance to insertion is met
- D. Asking the client to swallow as the tube is being advanced
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take to insert a nasogastric tube safely and easily is asking the client to swallow as the tube is being advanced. This action helps facilitate the passage of the tube through the esophagus into the stomach. Placing the tube in warm water (Choice A) is not a recommended practice for nasogastric tube insertion. Hyperextending the head (Choice B) can cause discomfort and is not necessary for safe insertion. Removing the tube if resistance is met (Choice C) is incorrect as it may cause harm or discomfort to the client. Asking the client to swallow helps the tube pass more smoothly and comfortably.
5. A client with acute kidney injury (AKI) weighing 50kg and having a potassium level of 6.7mEq/L (6.7mmol/L) is admitted to the hospital. Which prescribed medication should the nurse administer first?
- A. Calcium acetate, one tablet by mouth
- B. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate, 15 grams by mouth
- C. Epoetin Alfa, recombinant, 2,500 units subcutaneously
- D. Sevelamer, one tablet by mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with acute kidney injury (AKI) and hyperkalemia, the priority intervention is to lower the potassium level swiftly. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate is a medication used to treat hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestines, reducing the overall potassium levels. Calcium acetate, epoetin alfa, and sevelamer are not indicated for the immediate reduction of potassium levels in hyperkalemia. Calcium acetate is used to control phosphate levels, epoetin alfa is a medication to treat anemia by stimulating red blood cell production, and sevelamer is a phosphate binder used in chronic kidney disease to reduce phosphate levels.
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