Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a key symptom of appendicitis?

• A. Right lower quadrant pain.
• B. Left lower quadrant pain.
• C. Generalized abdominal pain.
• D. Rebound tenderness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Choice A: Right lower quadrant pain is a classic and key symptom of appendicitis. Pain in the right lower quadrant is typically the initial symptom and is a result of inflammation and irritation of the appendix. This pain can start around the umbilicus and then migrate to the right lower quadrant. It is important to note that appendicitis rarely presents with pain in the left lower quadrant or generalized abdominal pain. Rebound tenderness, indicated in Choice D, is a sign of peritoneal irritation and is associated with appendicitis, but it is not as characteristic as the right lower quadrant pain in the initial presentation of appendicitis.

2. A nurse is assessing the chest tube drainage system of a postoperative client who has undergone a right upper lobectomy. The closed drainage system contains 300 mL of bloody drainage, and the nurse notes intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber. One hour after the initial assessment, the nurse notes that the bubbling in the water seal chamber is now constant, and the client appears dyspneic. On the basis of these findings, the nurse should first assess:

• A. The client’s vital signs
• B. The amount of drainage
• C. The client’s lung sounds
• D. The chest tube connections

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client’s dyspnea is most likely related to an air leak caused by a loose connection in the chest tube system. Checking the chest tube connections should be the initial action because correcting an air leak can quickly resolve the client's symptoms. If a leak is found and corrected, the dyspnea should improve. Assessing the client’s vital signs (Option A) is important, but addressing the potential cause of dyspnea takes precedence. Monitoring the amount of drainage (Option B) is necessary for assessing the client's overall condition, but in this case, the dyspnea is likely due to an air leak. Checking the client’s lung sounds (Option C) is essential for respiratory assessment, but addressing the air leak should be the immediate priority to ensure adequate lung expansion and oxygenation.

3. A client with polycystic kidney disease (PKD) is being discharged. Which statements should the nurse include in this client’s discharge teaching? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Take your blood pressure every morning.
• B. Weigh yourself at the same time each day.
• C. Contact your provider if you have visual disturbances.
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client with polycystic kidney disease (PKD) should be educated on monitoring their blood pressure daily and weighing themselves consistently to detect any changes promptly. It is essential to contact the healthcare provider if visual disturbances occur, as this could indicate a complication such as a berry aneurysm associated with PKD. Foul-smelling or bloody urine should also prompt notification to the provider as they could signify urinary tract infections or glomerular injury. Choices A, B, and C are correct as they address crucial aspects of managing PKD and its potential complications. Choices A and B help in monitoring for changes in blood pressure and fluid status, while choice C focuses on detecting possible neurological complications. Choices A, B, and C are relevant to PKD management and should be included in the client's discharge teaching. Choices that mention diarrhea and renal stones are not directly associated with PKD; therefore, teaching related to these conditions would be irrelevant in this context.

4. A patient who is taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) calls to report developing an all-over rash. What action should the nurse instruct the patient to perform?

• A. Increase fluid intake.
• B. Take diphenhydramine.
• C. Stop taking TMP-SMX immediately.
• D. Continue taking the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient develops an all-over rash while taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX), it may indicate a serious drug reaction. In this case, the patient should stop taking the medication immediately and notify their healthcare provider. Increasing fluid intake (Choice A) may be beneficial in some cases but is not the priority when a serious drug reaction is suspected. Taking diphenhydramine (Choice B) may help with itching but does not address the underlying issue of a potential drug reaction. Continuing the medication (Choice D) is not advisable when a serious adverse reaction such as a widespread rash occurs.

5. The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX). The nurse learns that the patient takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. To monitor for drug interactions, the nurse will request an order for which laboratory test(s)?

• A. A complete blood count
• B. BUN and creatinine
• C. Electrolytes
• D. Glucose

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C. Electrolytes.' When trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is taken with an ACE inhibitor, there is an increased risk of hyperkalemia due to the combined effects on potassium levels. Monitoring electrolytes, specifically potassium, is essential to detect and manage this potential drug interaction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are important tests in general patient care, they are not specifically indicated to monitor for the drug interaction between TMP-SMX and ACE inhibitors.

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