HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Test Bank
1. An overweight client taking warfarin (Coumadin) has dry skin due to decreased arterial blood flow. What should the nurse instruct the client to do? Select all that apply.
- A. Apply lanolin or petroleum jelly to intact skin.
- B. Follow a reduced-calorie, reduced-fat diet.
- C. Inspect the involved areas daily for new ulcerations.
- D. Instruct the client to limit activities of daily living (ADLs).
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To address dry skin and prevent chronic ulcers and infections in an overweight client on warfarin with decreased arterial blood flow, the nurse should instruct the client to apply lanolin or petroleum jelly to intact skin. This helps maintain skin integrity and moisture. Following a reduced-calorie, reduced-fat diet (Choice B) may be beneficial for weight management but is not directly related to skin care. Inspecting involved areas daily for new ulcerations (Choice C) is important for skin assessment and early intervention but does not specifically address dry skin. Instructing the client to limit activities of daily living (ADLs) (Choice D) is not necessary for addressing dry skin; in fact, promoting mobility and circulation through appropriate activities is crucial.
2. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL. After the nurse calls the physician to report the finding and monitors the client closely for:
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the scenario described, a client with a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL and type 1 diabetes mellitus is at risk of developing metabolic acidosis. In type 1 diabetes, the lack of sufficient circulating insulin leads to an increase in blood glucose levels. As the body cells utilize all available glucose, the breakdown of fats for energy results in the production of ketones, leading to metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis, respiratory acidosis, and respiratory alkalosis are not typically associated with uncontrolled type 1 diabetes. Metabolic alkalosis is more commonly linked to conditions such as vomiting or excessive diuretic use, while respiratory acidosis and respiratory alkalosis are related to respiratory system imbalances in carbon dioxide levels.
3. A healthcare professional reviews a client’s laboratory results. Which results from the client’s urinalysis should the healthcare professional identify as normal? (Select all that apply.)
- A. pH: 6
- B. Specific gravity: 1.015
- C. Glucose: negative
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a urinalysis, a pH of 6 is within the normal range (typically between 4.6 and 8); a specific gravity of 1.015 is considered normal (usually ranging between 1.005 to 1.030); and a negative glucose result is also normal. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are correct as they fall within the normal values for a urinalysis. Choices A, B, and C are the correct answers, as the pH, specific gravity, and glucose levels are within the normal range for a urinalysis. Choice D is correct because all the listed values are normal. Choices A, B, and C are the correct options as they meet the criteria for normal urinalysis values. The other choices do not fall within the normal range for a urinalysis.
4. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a patient with left-sided heart failure?
- A. Administering IV fluids.
- B. Administering oxygen.
- C. Administering diuretics.
- D. Administering antihypertensives.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with left-sided heart failure because it helps improve oxygenation. In left-sided heart failure, the heart struggles to pump oxygen-rich blood to the body, leading to inadequate oxygen supply to tissues. Administering oxygen can help alleviate symptoms of hypoxia and reduce the workload on the heart. IV fluids (Choice A) may exacerbate heart failure by increasing fluid volume, diuretics (Choice C) are used to reduce fluid overload in heart failure, and antihypertensives (Choice D) are more suitable for managing hypertension, which may be a comorbidity in heart failure but are not the primary intervention for left-sided heart failure.
5. A client is experiencing diarrhea. For which acid-base disorder should the nurse assess the client?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client experiences diarrhea, the loss of bicarbonate-rich fluids from the body leads to a decrease in the bicarbonate levels in the blood, resulting in metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis (choice B) is characterized by an increase in bicarbonate levels, which is not typically associated with diarrhea. Respiratory acidosis (choice C) is caused by retention of carbon dioxide, while respiratory alkalosis (choice D) results from excessive exhalation of carbon dioxide, neither of which are directly related to diarrhea. Therefore, the correct answer is metabolic acidosis (choice A) in the context of diarrhea.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access