Nursing Elites

1. An overweight client taking warfarin (Coumadin) has dry skin due to decreased arterial blood flow. What should the nurse instruct the client to do? Select all that apply.

• A. Apply lanolin or petroleum jelly to intact skin.
• B. Follow a reduced-calorie, reduced-fat diet.
• C. Inspect the involved areas daily for new ulcerations.
• D. Instruct the client to limit activities of daily living (ADLs).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To address dry skin and prevent chronic ulcers and infections in an overweight client on warfarin with decreased arterial blood flow, the nurse should instruct the client to apply lanolin or petroleum jelly to intact skin. This helps maintain skin integrity and moisture. Following a reduced-calorie, reduced-fat diet (Choice B) may be beneficial for weight management but is not directly related to skin care. Inspecting involved areas daily for new ulcerations (Choice C) is important for skin assessment and early intervention but does not specifically address dry skin. Instructing the client to limit activities of daily living (ADLs) (Choice D) is not necessary for addressing dry skin; in fact, promoting mobility and circulation through appropriate activities is crucial.

2. A client is receiving a continuous IV infusion of heparin for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis. The client’s activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level is 80 seconds. The client’s baseline before the initiation of therapy was 30 seconds. Which action does the nurse anticipate is needed?

• A. Shutting off the heparin infusion
• B. Increasing the rate of the heparin infusion
• C. Decreasing the rate of the heparin infusion
• D. Leaving the rate of the heparin infusion as is

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse needs to decrease the rate of the heparin infusion. The therapeutic dose of heparin for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis is designed to keep the aPTT between 1.5 and 2.5 times normal. With the client's aPTT level elevated to 80 seconds from a baseline of 30 seconds, it indicates that the current rate of heparin infusion is too high. Lowering the rate of infusion is necessary to bring the aPTT within the desired therapeutic range. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because shutting off the infusion, increasing the rate, or leaving it as is would not address the elevated aPTT level and may lead to complications.

3. The patient weighs 75 kg and is receiving IV fluids at a rate of 50 mL/hour, having consumed 100 mL orally in the past 24 hours. What action will the nurse take?

• A. Contact the provider to ask about increasing the IV rate to 90 mL/hour.
• B. Discuss with the provider the need to increase the IV rate to 150 mL/hour.
• C. Encourage the patient to drink more water so the IV can be discontinued.
• D. Instruct the patient to drink 250 mL of water every 8 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The recommended daily fluid intake for adults is 30 to 40 mL/kg/day. For a patient weighing 75 kg, the minimum intake should be 2250 mL/day. The patient is currently receiving 1200 mL IV and 100 mL orally, totaling 1300 mL. Increasing the IV rate to 90 mL/hour would provide a total of 2160 mL, which could meet the patient's needs if oral intake continues. Option B suggests increasing the IV rate to 150 mL/hour, resulting in an excessive fluid intake of 3600 mL/day, surpassing the recommended amount. Option C, encouraging increased fluid intake, is not recommended as the patient is already struggling with fluid intake. Option D, instructing the patient to drink 250 mL of water every 8 hours, would still fall short of the required fluid intake of 2250 mL/day.

4. A nurse administers scopolamine as prescribed to a client in preparation for surgery. For which side effect of this medication does the nurse monitor the client?

• A. Pupil constriction
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Complaints of dry mouth
• D. Complaints of feeling sweaty

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Complaints of feeling sweaty.' Scopolamine, an anticholinergic medication, commonly causes the side effect of decreased sweating, not increased urine output or pupil constriction. While dry mouth is a possible side effect, it is less likely than the altered sweating pattern. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for complaints of feeling sweaty due to the potential side effect of decreased sweating associated with scopolamine.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the results of serum laboratory studies of a client with suspected hepatitis. Which increased parameter is interpreted as the most specific indicator of this disease?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. Serum bilirubin
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Serum bilirubin is the most specific indicator of hepatitis as it reflects liver dysfunction. Hemoglobin, blood urea nitrogen (BUN), and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) are not specific to hepatitis. Hemoglobin measures the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells, BUN evaluates kidney function, and ESR is a nonspecific marker of inflammation or infection.

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