Nursing Elites

1. The nurse explains to the client with Hodgkin's disease that a bone marrow biopsy will be taken after the aspiration. What should the nurse explain about the biopsy?

• A. The biopsy will confirm the diagnosis of Hodgkin's disease.
• B. The biopsy will show the extent of the disease in the bones.
• C. The biopsy will be done to check for infection in the bones.
• D. The biopsy will help determine the best treatment for the disease.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A bone marrow biopsy helps determine the best treatment plan for Hodgkin's disease by providing crucial information about the extent and nature of the disease. While confirming the diagnosis is important, the primary purpose of the biopsy in this case is to guide treatment decisions. The biopsy is not primarily for assessing the extent of the disease in the bones or checking for infections in the bones.

2. A healthcare professional assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for the development of bacterial cystitis?

• A. A 36-year-old female who has never been pregnant
• B. A 42-year-old male who is prescribed cyclophosphamide
• C. A 58-year-old female who is not taking estrogen replacement
• D. A 77-year-old male with mild congestive heart failure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Females are at higher risk of developing bacterial cystitis due to their shorter urethra compared to males. Postmenopausal women not on estrogen replacement therapy are particularly susceptible to cystitis because of changes in vaginal and urethral cells. This increases the risk of bacterial infection. The other options do not have the same level of risk as the postmenopausal woman not using hormone replacement therapy. A never-pregnant middle-aged woman does not have the same increased risk as a postmenopausal woman with hormonal changes.

3. What is the most important content for the nurse to include in discharge teaching for a 51-year-old truck driver who smokes two packs of cigarettes a day, is 30 pounds overweight, and has been diagnosed with a gastric ulcer?

• A. Information about smoking cessation.
• B. Diet instructions for a low-residue diet.
• C. Instructions on a weight-loss program.
• D. The importance of increasing milk in the diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Information about smoking cessation. Smoking is a significant risk factor for ulcer formation. It is crucial for the nurse to include smoking cessation information in the discharge teaching to help manage the gastric ulcer and prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in this scenario. While diet modifications may be beneficial, addressing smoking cessation takes precedence due to its direct correlation with ulcer development.

4. A patient who is being treated for dehydration is receiving 5% dextrose and 0.45% normal saline with 20 mEq/L potassium chloride at a rate of 125 mL/hour. The nurse assuming care for the patient reviews the patient’s serum electrolytes and notes a serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L and a serum potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L. The patient had a urine output of 250 mL during the last 12-hour shift. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Contact the patient’s provider to discuss increasing the potassium chloride to 40 mEq/L.
• B. Continue the intravenous fluids as ordered and reassess the patient frequently.
• C. Notify the provider and discuss increasing the rate of fluids to 200 mL/hour.
• D. Stop the intravenous fluids and notify the provider of the assessment findings.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient’s potassium level is within normal limits, but the decreased urine output indicates the patient should not receive additional IV potassium. Increasing potassium chloride to 40 mEq/L is not needed as the level is normal. Stopping the IV fluids is appropriate due to the decreased urine output, which suggests potential fluid overload. The nurse should notify the provider of the assessment findings for further management. Increasing the rate of fluids to 200 mL/hour is not recommended without addressing the decreased urine output first.

5. The client with diabetes mellitus is being taught how to prevent or delay chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which client statements indicate a lack of understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.)

• A. I can continue to take an aspirin every 4 to 8 hours for my pain.
• B. My weight should be maintained at a body mass index of 30.
• C. Smoking should be stopped as soon as possible.
• D. A & B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Both statements A and B indicate a lack of understanding of CKD prevention. Taking aspirin every 4 to 8 hours can lead to kidney damage, and maintaining a body mass index (BMI) of 30 is considered overweight, which can increase the risk of developing CKD. Statement C, on the other hand, correctly addresses smoking cessation, which is crucial in preventing CKD. Therefore, choices A and B are incorrect as they do not align with CKD prevention strategies, making option D the correct choice.

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