HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Specialty Exam
1. A client has been scheduled for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). For which of the following conditions, a contraindication to MRI, does the nurse check the client’s medical history?
- A. Pancreatitis
- B. Pacemaker insertion
- C. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
- D. Chronic airway limitation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pacemaker insertion. Patients with metal devices or implants are contraindicated for MRI. These include pacemakers, orthopedic hardware, artificial heart valves, aneurysm clips, and intrauterine devices. These metal objects can be affected by the strong magnetic field of the MRI, leading to serious risks for the patient. Pancreatitis (choice A), Type 1 diabetes mellitus (choice C), and chronic airway limitation (choice D) are not contraindications to MRI based on the presence of metal objects. Therefore, the nurse should be particularly concerned about pacemaker insertion when reviewing the client's medical history prior to an MRI.
2. The client with chronic renal failure is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following is the most important action for the nurse to take?
- A. Administer the prescribed antibiotics.
- B. Monitor for signs of infection.
- C. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
- D. Monitor the client's weight daily.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial in clients undergoing peritoneal dialysis. Peritonitis is a severe complication associated with peritoneal dialysis, making it essential to promptly identify any signs of infection, such as abdominal pain, cloudy dialysate, fever, and an elevated white blood cell count. Administering antibiotics without proper assessment can lead to antibiotic resistance and should not be the initial action. Encouraging increased fluid intake may not be appropriate without assessing the client's fluid status. Monitoring weight alone does not address the immediate risk of peritonitis in a client undergoing peritoneal dialysis.
3. A client is undergoing hemodialysis. The client’s blood pressure at the beginning of the procedure was 136/88 mm Hg, and now it is 110/54 mm Hg. What actions should the nurse perform to maintain blood pressure? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Adjust the rate of extracorporeal blood flow.
- B. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position.
- C. Administer a 250-mL bolus of normal saline.
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During hemodialysis, a drop in blood pressure can occur due to fluid removal. To maintain blood pressure, the nurse should consider adjusting the rate of extracorporeal blood flow to optimize fluid removal without causing hypotension. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position can help improve venous return and cardiac output. Administering a bolus of normal saline can help increase intravascular volume and support blood pressure. Therefore, all the actions listed in choices A, B, and C are appropriate measures to maintain blood pressure during hemodialysis. Choice D, 'All of the above,' is the correct answer as it encompasses all the relevant actions to address the dropping blood pressure effectively. Choices A, B, and C, when implemented together, can help manage hypotension during hemodialysis.
4. A client is experiencing diarrhea. For which acid-base disorder should the nurse assess the client?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client experiences diarrhea, the loss of bicarbonate-rich fluids from the body leads to a decrease in the bicarbonate levels in the blood, resulting in metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis (choice B) is characterized by an increase in bicarbonate levels, which is not typically associated with diarrhea. Respiratory acidosis (choice C) is caused by retention of carbon dioxide, while respiratory alkalosis (choice D) results from excessive exhalation of carbon dioxide, neither of which are directly related to diarrhea. Therefore, the correct answer is metabolic acidosis (choice A) in the context of diarrhea.
5. A nurse obtains a sterile urine specimen from a client’s Foley catheter. After applying a clamp to the drainage tubing distal to the injection port, which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Clamp another section of the tube to create a fixed sample section for retrieval.
- B. Insert a syringe into the injection port and aspirate the quantity of urine required.
- C. Clean the injection port cap of the drainage tubing with a povidone-iodine solution.
- D. Withdraw 10 mL of urine and discard it; then withdraw a fresh sample of urine.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct next action for the nurse to take after applying a clamp to the drainage tubing distal to the injection port is to clean the injection port cap of the catheter drainage tubing with an appropriate antiseptic like povidone-iodine solution or alcohol. This step is crucial to prevent surface contamination before taking the urine sample. Clamping another section of the tube to create a fixed sample section or withdrawing and discarding urine are unnecessary and could lead to potential contamination. Inserting a syringe into the injection port and aspirating the required amount of urine directly from the catheter is the correct method for obtaining the urine sample, but cleaning the injection port cap should precede this step to ensure sterility.
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