HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Specialty Exam
1. A client who is postmenopausal and has had two episodes of bacterial urethritis in the last 6 months asks, “I never have urinary tract infections. Why is this happening now?” How should the nurse respond?
- A. Your immune system becomes less effective as you age.
- B. Low estrogen levels can make the tissue more susceptible to infection.
- C. You should be more careful with your personal hygiene in this area.
- D. It is likely that you have an untreated sexually transmitted disease.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Low estrogen levels in postmenopausal women decrease moisture and secretions in the perineal area, causing tissue changes that predispose them to infection, including urethritis. This is a common reason for urethritis in postmenopausal women. While immune function does decrease with aging and sexually transmitted diseases can cause urethritis, the most likely reason in this case is the low estrogen levels. Personal hygiene practices are usually not a significant factor in the development of urethritis.
2. The nurse is teaching a patient who will be discharged home from the hospital to take amoxicillin (Amoxil) twice daily for 10 days. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
- A. Discontinue the antibiotic when your temperature returns to normal and your symptoms have improved.
- B. If diarrhea occurs, stop taking the drug immediately and contact your provider.
- C. Stop taking the drug and notify your provider if you develop a rash while taking this drug.
- D. You may save any unused antibiotic to use if your symptoms recur.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Patients who develop signs of allergy, such as rash, should notify their provider before continuing medication therapy. Patients should be counseled to continue taking their antibiotics until completion of the prescribed regimen even when they feel well. Diarrhea is an adverse effect but does not warrant cessation of the drug. Before deciding to stop taking a medication due to a side effect, encourage the patient to contact the provider first. Patients should discard any unused antibiotic.
3. A healthcare professional is monitoring the respiratory status of a client who has just undergone surgery and is wearing a pulse oximeter. Which of the following coexisting problems is cause for the healthcare professional to suspect that the oxygen saturation readings are not entirely accurate?
- A. Infection
- B. Hypertension
- C. Low blood pressure
- D. Loss of cough reflex
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Low blood pressure (hypotension), shock, and the use of peripheral vasoconstricting medications can lead to inaccurate pulse oximetry readings due to impaired peripheral perfusion. Hypertension and infection are not typically associated with inaccurate pulse oximetry readings, while the loss of cough reflex does not directly affect oxygen saturation readings.
4. A nurse is conducting an assessment of a client who underwent thoracentesis of the right side of the chest 3 hours ago. Which findings does the nurse report to the physician? Select all that apply.
- A. Unequal chest expansion
- B. Pulse rate of 82 beats/min
- C. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min
- D. Diminished breath sounds in the right lung
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After thoracentesis, the nurse should assess the client for signs of pneumothorax, which include increased respiratory rate, dyspnea, retractions, unequal chest expansion, diminished breath sounds, and cyanosis. Unequal chest expansion is a key sign of pneumothorax due to the accumulation of air in the pleural space, causing the affected lung to collapse partially. Pulse rate and respiratory rate within normal ranges, like in choices B and C, are not the priority findings to report in this situation. Diminished breath sounds in the right lung could be expected after thoracentesis and may not necessarily indicate a complication like pneumothorax, making choice D less urgent to report.
5. A client with chronic kidney disease starts on hemodialysis. During the first dialysis treatment, the client's blood pressure drops from 150/90 to 80/30. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Stop the dialysis treatment
- B. Administer 5% albumin IV
- C. Monitor blood pressure every 45 minutes
- D. Lower the head of the chair and elevate feet
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The initial action the nurse should take when a client's blood pressure drops significantly during hemodialysis is to lower the head of the chair and elevate the feet. This position adjustment helps improve blood flow to the brain and vital organs, assisting in stabilizing blood pressure. Stopping the dialysis treatment immediately may not be necessary if the blood pressure can be managed effectively by position changes. Administering 5% albumin IV is not the first-line intervention for hypotension during dialysis. Monitoring blood pressure every 45 minutes is important but not the immediate action needed to address the significant drop in blood pressure observed during the dialysis session.
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