HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Practice Exam
1. A client has been diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Which information is most important for the nurse to reinforce with the client?
- A. It is a condition in which one or more tumors, called gastrinomas, form in the pancreas or in the upper part of the small intestine (duodenum).
- B. It is critical to promptly report any findings of peptic ulcers to your health care provider.
- C. Treatment consists of medications to reduce acid and heal any peptic ulcers and, if possible, surgery to remove any tumors.
- D. The average age at diagnosis is 50 years, and peptic ulcers may occur in unusual areas of the stomach or intestine.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Prompt reporting of peptic ulcers is crucial in managing Zollinger-Ellison syndrome to prevent complications and guide treatment. While choices A, C, and D provide relevant information about the condition and its treatment, the most important aspect in the client's care is the prompt reporting of peptic ulcers. This is because untreated peptic ulcers in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome can lead to serious complications such as gastrointestinal bleeding or perforation. Therefore, ensuring timely communication with the healthcare provider is essential for effective management of the condition.
2. A client with hypertension taking a potassium-wasting diuretic is being educated about nutrition by a nurse. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Increase consumption of tuna and salmon.
- B. Limit intake of dried fruits.
- C. Avoid cow's milk.
- D. Consume organs and bananas
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Consume organs and bananas.' When a client is taking a potassium-wasting diuretic, they are at risk of potassium loss. Consuming foods high in potassium, such as organs and bananas, can help counteract this loss. Choice A is incorrect because tuna and salmon are not particularly high in potassium. Choice B is incorrect because dried fruits are good sources of potassium. Choice C is incorrect as cow's milk is also a good source of potassium, which could be beneficial for a client taking a potassium-wasting diuretic.
3. The nurse assesses a 72-year-old client who was admitted for right-sided congestive heart failure. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate finding?
- A. Decreased urinary output
- B. Jugular vein distention
- C. Pleural effusion
- D. Bibasilar crackles
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In right-sided congestive heart failure, the nurse would anticipate finding jugular vein distention. This occurs due to increased venous pressure, leading to the distention of the jugular veins in the neck. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Decreased urinary output is not typically associated with right-sided heart failure; pleural effusion and bibasilar crackles are more commonly seen in conditions like left-sided heart failure.
4. A child is admitted to the pediatric unit with a diagnosis of suspected meningococcal meningitis. Which admission orders should the nurse do first?
- A. Institute seizure precautions
- B. Monitor neurologic status every hour
- C. Place in respiratory/secretion precautions
- D. Cefotaxime IV 50 mg/kg/day divided q6h
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to place the child in respiratory/secretion precautions first. Meningococcal meningitis is highly contagious, and respiratory precautions are essential to prevent the spread of the infection. Seizure precautions may be necessary but are not the priority upon admission. Monitoring neurologic status is important but not the initial action needed. While antibiotic therapy like Cefotaxime is crucial, implementing isolation precautions to prevent transmission takes precedence in this situation.
5. The nurse is assessing a client 2 hours postoperatively after a femoral popliteal bypass. The upper leg dressing becomes saturated with blood. The nurse's first action should be to
- A. Wrap the leg with elastic bandages
- B. Apply pressure at the bleeding site
- C. Reinforce the dressing and elevate the leg
- D. Remove the dressings and re-dress the incision
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario where the upper leg dressing becomes saturated with blood post-femoral popliteal bypass, the nurse's first action should be to apply pressure at the bleeding site. Applying pressure is essential to control hemorrhage and prevent further blood loss. Choice A is incorrect as wrapping the leg with elastic bandages would not address the immediate issue of controlling the bleeding. Choice C is incorrect because reinforcing the dressing and elevating the leg should come after controlling the bleeding. Choice D is incorrect as removing the dressings and re-dressing the incision should only be done after the bleeding is under control to prevent excessive blood loss.
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