Nursing Elites

1. When introducing solid foods to an infant, what food should be recommended to be introduced first?

• A. Strained fruits
• B. Pureed meats
• C. Cooked egg whites
• D. Iron-fortified cereal

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When introducing solid foods to infants, iron-fortified cereal is usually recommended as the first food due to its high nutritional value and the importance of iron for the baby's development. Strained fruits (choice A) are often introduced later due to their higher sugar content. Pureed meats (choice B) and cooked egg whites (choice C) are usually introduced after iron-fortified cereal to provide additional sources of protein and other nutrients.

2. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client about dietary choices for celiac disease. Which of the following menu choices selected by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. Hamburger on a wheat bun
• B. Baked chicken and potato chips
• C. Bacon, lettuce, and tomato sandwich on rye toast
• D. Beef and barley soup with crackers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because baked chicken and potato chips are gluten-free options suitable for a client with celiac disease. Choice A, a hamburger on a wheat bun, contains gluten, which is harmful to individuals with celiac disease. Choice C, a bacon, lettuce, and tomato sandwich on rye toast, also contains gluten. Choice D, beef and barley soup with crackers, includes gluten from the barley and crackers, making it unsuitable for someone with celiac disease.

3. A nurse is assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility. Which client is at highest risk for the development of decubitus ulcers?

• A. A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest
• B. An obese client who uses a wheelchair
• C. A client who had 3 episodes of incontinent diarrhea
• D. An 80-year-old ambulatory diabetic client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A malnourished client on bed rest is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to a combination of factors such as poor nutritional status and immobility. Malnourished individuals have compromised skin integrity, making them more susceptible to pressure ulcers. Being on bed rest further exacerbates this risk as constant pressure on bony prominences can lead to tissue damage. Although the other choices may also be at risk for developing decubitus ulcers, the malnourished client on bed rest presents the highest risk due to the combination of malnutrition and immobility.

4. A client has been diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Which information is most important for the nurse to reinforce with the client?

• A. It is a condition in which one or more tumors, called gastrinomas, form in the pancreas or in the upper part of the small intestine (duodenum).
• B. It is critical to promptly report any findings of peptic ulcers to your health care provider.
• C. Treatment consists of medications to reduce acid and heal any peptic ulcers and, if possible, surgery to remove any tumors.
• D. The average age at diagnosis is 50 years, and peptic ulcers may occur in unusual areas of the stomach or intestine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prompt reporting of peptic ulcers is crucial in managing Zollinger-Ellison syndrome to prevent complications and guide treatment. While choices A, C, and D provide relevant information about the condition and its treatment, the most important aspect in the client's care is the prompt reporting of peptic ulcers. This is because untreated peptic ulcers in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome can lead to serious complications such as gastrointestinal bleeding or perforation. Therefore, ensuring timely communication with the healthcare provider is essential for effective management of the condition.

5. Which information is a priority for the client to reinforce after intravenous pyelography?

• A. Eat a light diet for the rest of the day
• B. Rest for the next 24 hours as the preparation and test are tiring.
• C. During waking hours, drink at least 1 8-ounce glass of fluid every hour for the next 2 days
• D. Measure urine output for the next day and immediately notify the healthcare provider if it decreases.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After intravenous pyelography, monitoring urine output is crucial to assess kidney function and detect any early signs of complications. Decreased urine output could indicate a problem with kidney function or potential complications from the procedure. While rest and hydration are important, the priority lies in monitoring urine output for any abnormalities. Eating a light diet may be recommended, but it is not the priority post-procedure instruction.

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