HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Exam
1. The healthcare provider should recognize which of the following as an indication of dehydration in an elderly client?
- A. Skin turgor
- B. Dry mucous membranes
- C. Elevated temperature
- D. Increased pulse pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Dry mucous membranes are a classic sign of dehydration, especially in elderly individuals. Dehydration can lead to decreased moisture in the mucous membranes, making them dry. Skin turgor, although commonly assessed for dehydration in younger individuals, may be less reliable in the elderly due to changes in skin elasticity. Elevated temperature is more indicative of an infection or other conditions. Increased pulse pressure is not typically associated with dehydration in the elderly.
2. The practical nurse is caring for a child with suspected appendicitis. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Nausea and vomiting.
- B. Sudden relief of pain.
- C. Low-grade fever.
- D. Rebound tenderness.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Sudden relief of pain in a child with suspected appendicitis should be reported immediately as it may indicate a rupture of the appendix, which is a medical emergency. Sudden relief of pain is concerning because it can be a sign of a perforated appendix, leading to peritonitis and sepsis.
3. An older client with SIRS has a temperature of 101.8°F, a heart rate of 110 beats per minute, and a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute. Which additional finding is most important to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL
- B. Elevated WBC count
- C. Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg
- D. Oxygen saturation of 95%
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 2.0 mg/dL indicates possible acute kidney injury, which can occur during severe systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS). Reporting this value promptly allows for interventions to prevent further renal damage. Elevated WBC count (choice B) is a common feature of SIRS and may not be as urgently indicative of immediate organ damage as high creatinine levels. A blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg (choice C) is relatively low but may be a typical finding in SIRS; however, renal function is critical in this context. Oxygen saturation of 95% (choice D) is within normal limits and is not as concerning as a high creatinine level in this scenario.
4. What types of medications should the healthcare provider expect to administer to a client during an acute respiratory distress episode?
- A. Vasodilators and hormones.
- B. Analgesics and sedatives.
- C. Anticoagulants and expectorants.
- D. Bronchodilators and steroids.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During an acute respiratory distress episode, the priority is to widen air passages, increase air space, and reduce alveolar membrane inflammation. Therefore, the client would likely require bronchodilators to open up the airways and steroids to reduce inflammation. Vasodilators and hormones (Choice A) are not typically indicated in this situation. Analgesics and sedatives (Choice B) may be used for pain management and anxiety but are not primary treatments for respiratory distress. Anticoagulants and expectorants (Choice C) are not the main medications used during an acute respiratory distress episode and may not address the immediate needs of the client.
5. What are the Carunculae Myrtiformes?
- A. Tissues between the vagina and the perineum
- B. A component of the clitoral prepuce
- C. The remnants of the torn hymen
- D. Structures that partially close the vaginal introitus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The Carunculae Myrtiformes are the remnants of the torn hymen. They are not tissues between the vagina and the perineum (Choice A), a part of the clitoral prepuce (Choice B), or structures that partially close the vaginal introitus (Choice D). Understanding the anatomy of the female reproductive system is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide accurate care and information.