HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Exam
1. The healthcare provider should recognize which of the following as an indication of dehydration in an elderly client?
- A. Skin turgor
- B. Dry mucous membranes
- C. Elevated temperature
- D. Increased pulse pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Dry mucous membranes are a classic sign of dehydration, especially in elderly individuals. Dehydration can lead to decreased moisture in the mucous membranes, making them dry. Skin turgor, although commonly assessed for dehydration in younger individuals, may be less reliable in the elderly due to changes in skin elasticity. Elevated temperature is more indicative of an infection or other conditions. Increased pulse pressure is not typically associated with dehydration in the elderly.
2. A client is receiving treatment for hypertension. Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?
- A. A heart rate of 90 beats per minute
- B. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg
- C. A respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute
- D. A temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute is within normal limits; however, changes in breathing patterns can indicate respiratory distress, which is concerning, especially in a client receiving treatment for hypertension. A heart rate of 90 beats per minute may not be alarming if the client is at rest. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is within the normal range for a healthy adult. A temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit is also considered normal, showing no immediate cause for concern in this scenario.
3. A client is recovering from a hip replacement and is taking Tylenol #3 every 3 hours for pain. In checking the client, which finding suggests a side effect of the analgesic?
- A. Bruising at the operative site
- B. Elevated heart rate
- C. Decreased platelet count
- D. No bowel movement for 3 days
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Constipation is a common side effect of Tylenol #3, which contains codeine. Codeine can slow down bowel movements, leading to constipation. Monitoring for constipation and implementing management strategies is crucial. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because bruising at the operative site, elevated heart rate, and decreased platelet count are not commonly associated side effects of Tylenol #3.
4. The nurse is reviewing laboratory results on a client with acute renal failure. Which one of the following should be reported immediately?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen 50 mg/dl
- B. Hemoglobin of 10.3 g/dl
- C. Venous blood pH 7.30
- D. Serum potassium 6 mEq/L
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias and must be addressed promptly. The other options are not as urgent. A blood urea nitrogen level of 50 mg/dl may indicate kidney dysfunction but does not require immediate intervention. Hemoglobin of 10.3 g/dl may suggest anemia, which needs management but is not an immediate threat. A venous blood pH of 7.30 may indicate acidosis, which is concerning but not as acutely dangerous as hyperkalemia.
5. The client is being taught about precautions with Coumadin therapy. Which over-the-counter medication should the client be instructed to avoid?
- A. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
- B. Cough medicines with guaifenesin
- C. Histamine blockers
- D. Laxatives containing magnesium salts
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). When a client is on Coumadin therapy, NSAIDs should be avoided because they can increase the risk of bleeding due to their antiplatelet effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Cough medicines with guaifenesin, histamine blockers, and laxatives containing magnesium salts do not have a significant interaction with Coumadin therapy that would necessitate avoidance.
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