the nurse should recognize which of the following as an indication of dehydration in an elderly client
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Nutrition Exam

1. The healthcare provider should recognize which of the following as an indication of dehydration in an elderly client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dry mucous membranes are a classic sign of dehydration, especially in elderly individuals. Dehydration can lead to decreased moisture in the mucous membranes, making them dry. Skin turgor, although commonly assessed for dehydration in younger individuals, may be less reliable in the elderly due to changes in skin elasticity. Elevated temperature is more indicative of an infection or other conditions. Increased pulse pressure is not typically associated with dehydration in the elderly.

2. When another nurse enters the room in response to a call, after checking the client's pulse and respirations during CPR on an adult in cardiopulmonary arrest, what should be the function of the second nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to participate in compressions or breathing. This is essential to ensure continuous and effective CPR. Relieving the nurse performing CPR (Choice A) is not recommended as it can interrupt the life-saving procedure. Going to get the code cart (Choice B) may be necessary in certain situations but should not take precedence over providing immediate assistance in CPR. Validating the client's advanced directive (Choice D) is not the primary role in this scenario where urgent action is needed to support the client's circulation and breathing.

3. An 86-year-old nursing home resident who has decreased mental status is hospitalized with pneumonic infiltrates in the right lower lobe. When the nurse assists the client with a clear liquid diet, the client begins to cough. What should the nurse do next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Checking the client's gag reflex is the appropriate action in this scenario. It helps assess the client's ability to swallow safely without the risk of aspiration. Adding a thickening agent to the fluids (Choice A) may be considered later if swallowing difficulties persist. Feeding the client only solid foods (Choice C) can increase the risk of aspiration in this case, and increasing the rate of intravenous fluids (Choice D) does not address the swallowing concern.

4. A client receiving filgrastim (Neupogen) for neutropenia is learning about compromised host precautions. The selection of which lunch suggests the client has learned about necessary dietary changes?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans are suitable choices for clients with neutropenia because they are considered safe options that help avoid potential sources of infection. Grilled chicken, peanut butter, and barbecue beef may carry a higher risk of bacterial contamination, which could be harmful to a client with compromised immunity.

5. A client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery is transitioning from a clear liquid diet to a full liquid diet. The nurse should remind the client that which of the following items is included in a full liquid diet?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, chocolate pudding. A full liquid diet consists of smooth, creamy foods like pudding. Creamed peas (choice A) are not typically allowed on a full liquid diet as they may contain solid pieces. Cottage cheese (choice B) and applesauce (choice D) are also not part of a full liquid diet as they are not in liquid form.

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