a client is receiving external beam radiation to the mediastinum for treatment of bronchial cancer which of the following should take priority in plan
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Nutrition Practice Exam

1. When a client is receiving external beam radiation to the mediastinum for treatment of bronchial cancer, which of the following should take priority in planning care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Leukopenia should take priority in planning care for a client receiving external beam radiation to the mediastinum for bronchial cancer because it is a serious side effect that increases the risk of infection. Monitoring leukopenia is crucial to prevent complications. Esophagitis, fatigue, and skin irritation are also potential side effects of radiation therapy, but leukopenia poses a higher risk of life-threatening infections, requiring immediate attention.

2. To prevent unnecessary hypoxia during suctioning of a tracheostomy, what must the nurse do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To prevent unnecessary hypoxia during suctioning of a tracheostomy, the nurse must apply suction for no more than 10 seconds. Prolonged suctioning can lead to hypoxia by removing too much oxygen from the patient. Maintaining a sterile technique (choice B) is important to prevent infection but does not directly relate to preventing hypoxia. Lubricating the catheter tip (choice C) helps with the insertion process but does not specifically address hypoxia prevention. Withdrawing the catheter in a circular motion (choice D) is not a standard practice during tracheostomy suctioning and does not contribute to preventing hypoxia.

3. A client is recovering from a hip replacement and is taking Tylenol #3 every 3 hours for pain. In checking the client, which finding suggests a side effect of the analgesic?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Constipation is a common side effect of Tylenol #3, which contains codeine. Codeine can slow down bowel movements, leading to constipation. Monitoring for constipation and implementing management strategies is crucial. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because bruising at the operative site, elevated heart rate, and decreased platelet count are not commonly associated side effects of Tylenol #3.

4. A nurse is assisting with the development of strategies to prevent foodborne illnesses for a community group. The nurse should plan to include which of the following recommendations? (Select one that doesn't apply).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Discarding leftovers after 48 hours is not an effective recommendation to prevent foodborne illnesses. Leftovers should actually be discarded within 2 hours if they have been at room temperature. Choices A, B, and D are all effective strategies to prevent foodborne illnesses: avoiding unpasteurized dairy products reduces the risk of harmful bacteria, keeping cold food temperatures below 4.4°C (40°F) inhibits bacterial growth, and washing raw vegetables thoroughly removes contaminants.

5. Which of these nursing assessments would be the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Checking the client's gag reflex before eating or drinking is the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia. Aspiration pneumonia can occur when food, liquids, or saliva are inhaled into the lungs, leading to inflammation or infection. Checking the gag reflex helps prevent the aspiration of substances into the lungs. Assessing the client's level of consciousness (Choice A) is important but not as immediately critical as checking the gag reflex. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice B) is essential for respiratory assessment but does not directly prevent aspiration. Monitoring intake and output (Choice D) is important for overall client management but does not specifically address the risk of aspiration pneumonia.

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