a client has been diagnosed with hyperthyroidism which of these nursing diagnoses should receive the highest priority
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Nutrition HESI Practice Exam

1. A client has been diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. Which of these nursing diagnoses should receive the highest priority?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Activity intolerance related to fatigue.' This nursing diagnosis should receive the highest priority for a client with hyperthyroidism. Hyperthyroidism often leads to symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and muscle discomfort, which can significantly impact the client's ability to perform daily activities. Addressing activity intolerance is crucial to prevent exacerbation of symptoms and promote the client's overall well-being. Choices A, B, and C are important nursing diagnoses as well, but in the context of hyperthyroidism, addressing activity intolerance takes precedence over the risk for injury related to exophthalmos, impaired social interaction related to emotional lability, and imbalanced nutrition due to hypermetabolism.

2. After a myocardial infarction, a client is placed on a sodium-restricted diet. When the nurse is teaching the client about the diet, which meal plan would be the most appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A meal of turkey, sweet potato, green beans, milk, and an orange is low in sodium and suitable for a post-MI diet. Choice A includes a baked potato and canned beets, which are higher in sodium. Choice B includes canned salmon, which can be high in sodium. Choice C includes a bologna sandwich, which is also high in sodium compared to the other options.

3. A client who has chronic lymphocytic leukemia is starting chemotherapy treatments and asks if she needs to make any dietary changes. Which of the following statements by the nurse is appropriate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using sugar-free gum can help alleviate the metallic taste often experienced during chemotherapy treatments. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Drinking fluids at mealtime may worsen early satiety, foods higher in fat can exacerbate nausea, and raw fruits and vegetables may be harder for the body to digest and may pose a risk of infection for individuals with compromised immune systems.

4. A client diagnosed with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites is receiving Spironolactone (Aldactone). The nurse understands that this medication spares the elimination of which element?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps retain potassium while eliminating sodium. This is beneficial for patients with cirrhosis and ascites as they are at risk of low potassium levels. Choice A, Sodium, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not spare the elimination of sodium but rather helps eliminate it. Choice C, Phosphate, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not directly affect phosphate levels. Choice D, Albumin, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not spare the elimination of albumin.

5. A nurse is providing care to a primigravida whose membranes spontaneously ruptured (ROM) 4 hours ago. Labor is to be induced. At the time of the ROM the vital signs were T-99.8 degrees F, P-84, R-20, BP-130/78, and fetal heart tones (FHT) 148 beats/min. Which assessment findings taken now may be an early indication that the client is developing a complication of labor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Fetal heart rate elevation can indicate distress, making it an early sign of labor complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the best answers in this scenario. Choice B, an elevated temperature, could indicate infection but is not a direct sign of labor complications. Choice C, cervical dilation of 4 cm, is a normal part of labor progression for a primigravida. Choice D, a blood pressure of 138/88, falls within normal limits and is not an early indication of labor complications.

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