Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing anticipatory guidance to the parents of a newborn about feeding skills. Which of the following is not an infant's feeding skill?

• A. Pushes solid objects from mouth
• B. Eats foods that are higher in fat
• C. Begins experimenting with a spoon
• D. Eats pieces of soft, cooked food

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When discussing infant feeding skills, it is important to note that eating foods higher in fat is not considered a specific feeding skill for newborns. The typical progression of feeding skills includes pushing solid objects from the mouth, eating pieces of soft, cooked food, drinking from a cup held by another person, and experimenting with a spoon. Choices A, C, and D correspond to the expected developmental sequence of feeding skills for infants, making them incorrect answers in this context.

2. After a myocardial infarction, a client is placed on a sodium-restricted diet. When the nurse is teaching the client about the diet, which meal plan would be the most appropriate?

• A. 3 oz. broiled fish, 1 baked potato, 1/2 cup canned beets, 1 orange, and milk
• B. 3 oz. canned salmon, fresh broccoli, 1 biscuit, tea, and 1 apple
• C. A bologna sandwich, fresh eggplant, 2 oz fresh fruit, tea, and apple juice
• D. 3 oz. turkey, 1 fresh sweet potato, 1/2 cup fresh green beans, milk, and 1 orange

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate meal plan for a client following a myocardial infarction and placed on a sodium-restricted diet should include fresh ingredients with low sodium content to promote heart health. Option D, which consists of 3 oz. turkey, 1 fresh sweet potato, 1/2 cup fresh green beans, milk, and 1 orange, aligns best with these requirements. Option A contains canned beets, which are typically high in sodium. Option B includes canned salmon, which may have added sodium. Option C has a bologna sandwich, which is processed and high in sodium. Therefore, Option D is the most suitable choice for a client needing a low-sodium diet after a heart attack.

3. The nurse is monitoring a client who has just had a thyroidectomy. The client complains of tingling in the fingers and around the mouth. Which of these findings should the nurse assess first?

• A. Calcium level
• B. Chvostek's sign
• C. Trousseau's sign
• D. Serum potassium level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Chvostek's sign. This is a classic sign of hypocalcemia, which can occur after a thyroidectomy due to injury or removal of the parathyroid glands. Hypocalcemia can lead to serious complications like tetany and laryngospasm, necessitating immediate attention. Assessing Chvostek's sign helps in early identification and management of hypocalcemia. Choices A, C, and D are not the priority in this situation. While assessing the calcium level is important for diagnosing hypocalcemia, the immediate concern is to identify clinical signs like Chvostek's sign, which indicate acute hypocalcemia. Trousseau's sign is also related to hypocalcemia but is not the most critical sign to assess first. Serum potassium level, although important for overall electrolyte balance, is not directly related to the client's current symptoms of tingling in the fingers and around the mouth.

4. The nurse is reviewing laboratory results on a client with acute renal failure. Which one of the following should be reported immediately?

• A. Blood urea nitrogen 50 mg/dl
• B. Hemoglobin of 10.3 g/dl
• C. Venous blood pH 7.30
• D. Serum potassium 6 mEq/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias and must be addressed promptly. The other options are not as urgent. A blood urea nitrogen level of 50 mg/dl may indicate kidney dysfunction but does not require immediate intervention. Hemoglobin of 10.3 g/dl may suggest anemia, which needs management but is not an immediate threat. A venous blood pH of 7.30 may indicate acidosis, which is concerning but not as acutely dangerous as hyperkalemia.

5. A client with a history of seizures is being monitored with an electroencephalogram (EEG). Which of these interventions should the nurse perform to prepare the client for the test?

• A. Instruct the client to avoid caffeine for 8 hours before the test
• B. Explain the procedure to the client and obtain consent
• C. Administer anticonvulsant medication as ordered
• D. Instruct the client to wash their hair the morning of the test

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Instructing the client to avoid caffeine for 8 hours before the EEG is essential. This intervention helps ensure accurate test results by preventing stimulation of the nervous system, which could interfere with the interpretation of the brain's electrical activity. Explaining the procedure and obtaining consent are important steps but do not directly impact the test results. Administering anticonvulsant medication as ordered is a medical intervention and not a preparation step for the test. Instructing the client to wash their hair the morning of the test is not necessary for EEG preparation.

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