Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing anticipatory guidance to the parents of a newborn about feeding skills. Which of the following is not an infant's feeding skill?

• A. Pushes solid objects from mouth
• B. Eats foods that are higher in fat
• C. Begins experimenting with a spoon
• D. Eats pieces of soft, cooked food

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When discussing infant feeding skills, it is important to note that eating foods higher in fat is not considered a specific feeding skill for newborns. The typical progression of feeding skills includes pushing solid objects from the mouth, eating pieces of soft, cooked food, drinking from a cup held by another person, and experimenting with a spoon. Choices A, C, and D correspond to the expected developmental sequence of feeding skills for infants, making them incorrect answers in this context.

2. A nurse is contributing to the plan of care of a client who has had a stroke. The client is experiencing severe dysphagia with choking and coughing while eating. Which of the following nutritional therapies should the nurse expect to include in the plan of care?

• A. NPO until dysphagia subsides
• B. Supplements via NG tube
• C. Initiation of total parenteral nutrition
• D. Mechanical soft diet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Mechanical soft diet. A mechanical soft diet is appropriate for clients with severe dysphagia as it helps reduce the risk of choking and aspiration by providing food that is easier to swallow. Choice A, NPO until dysphagia subsides, may be necessary initially but is not a long-term solution. Choice B, supplements via NG tube, may be considered if the client is unable to meet their nutritional needs orally, but it does not address the texture modification needed for dysphagia. Choice C, initiation of total parenteral nutrition, is typically reserved for clients who cannot tolerate any oral intake and is not the first-line option for dysphagia management.

3. A client is admitted for first and second degree burns on the face, neck, anterior chest, and hands. The nurse's priority should be

• A. Cover the areas with dry sterile dressings
• B. Assess for dyspnea or stridor
• C. Initiate intravenous therapy
• D. Administer pain medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for dyspnea or stridor. In burn cases involving the face, neck, or chest, there is a risk of airway compromise due to swelling. Dyspnea (difficulty breathing) or stridor (noisy breathing) can indicate airway obstruction or respiratory distress, which requires immediate intervention. Covering the burns with dry sterile dressings (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Initiating intravenous therapy (choice C) may be necessary but not the priority over assessing the airway. Administering pain medication (choice D) is important for comfort but should come after ensuring the airway is clear and breathing is adequate.

4. A client who is pregnant and has hyperemesis gravidarum is being taught about nutrition at home by a nurse. Which of the following statements indicate that the client understands the teachings?

• A. I will drink water with my meals.
• B. I will eat every 6 hours throughout the day.
• C. I will eat crackers before I get out of bed in the morning.
• D. I will limit my protein intake.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Eating crackers before getting out of bed can help manage nausea associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice A is incorrect because drinking water with meals may exacerbate nausea. Choice B is incorrect as eating every 6 hours may not be frequent enough to combat nausea and vomiting. Choice D is incorrect because protein intake should not be limited during pregnancy, especially in cases of hyperemesis gravidarum.

5. Which information is a priority for the client to reinforce after intravenous pyelography?

• A. Eat a light diet for the rest of the day
• B. Rest for the next 24 hours as the preparation and test are tiring.
• C. During waking hours, drink at least 1 8-ounce glass of fluid every hour for the next 2 days
• D. Measure urine output for the next day and immediately notify the healthcare provider if it decreases.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After intravenous pyelography, monitoring urine output is crucial to assess kidney function and detect any early signs of complications. Decreased urine output could indicate a problem with kidney function or potential complications from the procedure. While rest and hydration are important, the priority lies in monitoring urine output for any abnormalities. Eating a light diet may be recommended, but it is not the priority post-procedure instruction.

Similar Questions