HESI RN
Nutrition HESI Practice Exam
1. A client diagnosed with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites is receiving Spironolactone (Aldactone). The nurse understands that this medication spares the elimination of which element?
- A. Sodium
- B. Potassium
- C. Phosphate
- D. Albumin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps retain potassium while eliminating sodium. This is beneficial for patients with cirrhosis and ascites as they are at risk of low potassium levels. Choice A, Sodium, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not spare the elimination of sodium but rather helps eliminate it. Choice C, Phosphate, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not directly affect phosphate levels. Choice D, Albumin, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not spare the elimination of albumin.
2. The nurse has been teaching a client with Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I use a sliding scale to adjust regular insulin to my sugar level.
- B. Since my eyesight is so bad, I ask the nurse to fill several syringes.
- C. I keep my regular insulin bottle in the refrigerator.
- D. I always make sure to shake the NPH bottle hard to mix it well.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Shaking the NPH insulin bottle hard can cause air bubbles and affect dosing accuracy; it should be rolled gently instead.
3. While providing home care to a client with congestive heart failure, the nurse is asked how long diuretics must be taken. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. As you urinate more, you will need less medication to control fluid.
- B. You will have to take this medication for about a year.
- C. The medication must be continued so the fluid problem is controlled.
- D. Please talk to your health care provider about medications and treatments.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Diuretics must be continued to control fluid retention, as stopping them can lead to worsening of congestive heart failure.
4. A client is admitted for first and second degree burns on the face, neck, anterior chest, and hands. The nurse's priority should be
- A. Cover the areas with dry sterile dressings
- B. Assess for dyspnea or stridor
- C. Initiate intravenous therapy
- D. Administer pain medication
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for dyspnea or stridor. In burn cases involving the face, neck, or chest, there is a risk of airway compromise due to swelling. Dyspnea (difficulty breathing) or stridor (noisy breathing) can indicate airway obstruction or respiratory distress, which requires immediate intervention. Covering the burns with dry sterile dressings (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Initiating intravenous therapy (choice C) may be necessary but not the priority over assessing the airway. Administering pain medication (choice D) is important for comfort but should come after ensuring the airway is clear and breathing is adequate.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just returned from surgery. Which of these findings requires the most immediate attention?
- A. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg
- C. Temperature of 99.5 degrees Fahrenheit
- D. Heart rate of 80 beats per minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A temperature of 99.5 degrees Fahrenheit is slightly elevated but not immediately critical. In a postoperative patient, an elevated temperature could indicate an infection, which requires prompt attention to prevent complications. The respiratory rate, blood pressure, and heart rate within normal ranges are important to monitor but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as an elevated temperature does.
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