Nursing Elites

1. A client diagnosed with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites is receiving Spironolactone (Aldactone). The nurse understands that this medication spares the elimination of which element?

• A. Sodium
• B. Potassium
• C. Phosphate
• D. Albumin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps retain potassium while eliminating sodium. This is beneficial for patients with cirrhosis and ascites as they are at risk of low potassium levels. Choice A, Sodium, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not spare the elimination of sodium but rather helps eliminate it. Choice C, Phosphate, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not directly affect phosphate levels. Choice D, Albumin, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not spare the elimination of albumin.

2. A nurse checks a client who is on a volume-cycled ventilator. Which finding indicates that the client may need suctioning?

• A. drowsiness
• B. complaint of nausea
• C. pulse rate of 92
• D. restlessness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Restlessness is often a sign of respiratory distress or secretion build-up, indicating the need for suctioning. While drowsiness (choice A) can be a sign of hypoxia, it is not as immediate an indication for suctioning as restlessness. Complaint of nausea (choice B) and a pulse rate of 92 (choice C) are not directly related to the need for suctioning in a client on a volume-cycled ventilator.

3. A client receiving filgrastim (Neupogen) for neutropenia is learning about compromised host precautions. The selection of which lunch suggests the client has learned about necessary dietary changes?

• A. grilled chicken sandwich and skim milk
• B. roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans
• C. peanut butter sandwich, banana, and iced tea
• D. barbecue beef, baked beans, and cole slaw

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans are suitable choices for clients with neutropenia because they are considered safe options that help avoid potential sources of infection. Grilled chicken, peanut butter, and barbecue beef may carry a higher risk of bacterial contamination, which could be harmful to a client with compromised immunity.

4. A client is diagnosed with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia. What type of isolation is most appropriate for this client?

• A. Reverse
• B. Airborne
• C. Standard precautions
• D. Contact

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Contact.' Contact precautions are necessary for clients with MRSA pneumonia to prevent the spread of the resistant bacteria. MRSA is primarily spread by direct contact, so using contact precautions, such as wearing gloves and gowns, is essential. Choice A, 'Reverse,' is not a type of isolation precaution. Choice B, 'Airborne,' is not the appropriate isolation for MRSA pneumonia, as MRSA is not transmitted through the airborne route. Choice C, 'Standard precautions,' are important for all clients, but for MRSA pneumonia specifically, contact precautions are more targeted and necessary.

5. A client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery is transitioning from a clear liquid diet to a full liquid diet. The nurse should remind the client that which of the following items is included in a full liquid diet?

• A. Creamed peas
• B. Cottage cheese
• C. Chocolate pudding
• D. Applesauce

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, chocolate pudding. A full liquid diet consists of smooth, creamy foods like pudding. Creamed peas (choice A) are not typically allowed on a full liquid diet as they may contain solid pieces. Cottage cheese (choice B) and applesauce (choice D) are also not part of a full liquid diet as they are not in liquid form.

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