Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing care to a primigravida whose membranes spontaneously ruptured (ROM) 4 hours ago. Labor is to be induced. At the time of the ROM the vital signs were T-99.8 degrees F, P-84, R-20, BP-130/78, and fetal heart tones (FHT) 148 beats/min. Which assessment findings taken now may be an early indication that the client is developing a complication of labor?

• A. FHT 168 beats/min
• B. Temperature 100 degrees Fahrenheit
• C. Cervical dilation of 4 cm
• D. BP 138/88

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Fetal heart rate elevation can indicate distress, making it an early sign of labor complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the best answers in this scenario. Choice B, an elevated temperature, could indicate infection but is not a direct sign of labor complications. Choice C, cervical dilation of 4 cm, is a normal part of labor progression for a primigravida. Choice D, a blood pressure of 138/88, falls within normal limits and is not an early indication of labor complications.

2. A client with heart failure has Lanoxin (digoxin) ordered. What would the nurse expect to find when evaluating for the therapeutic effectiveness of this drug?

• A. diaphoresis with decreased urinary output
• B. increased heart rate with increased respirations
• C. improved respiratory status and increased urinary output
• D. decreased chest pain and decreased blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When evaluating the therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin in a client with heart failure, the nurse should expect to find improved respiratory status and increased urinary output. Digoxin helps improve cardiac output and reduces fluid accumulation, leading to improved breathing and increased urinary output. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because diaphoresis with decreased urinary output, increased heart rate with increased respirations, and decreased chest pain with decreased blood pressure are not indicative of the therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin in heart failure management.

3. The nurse is caring for a child immediately after surgical correction of a ventricular septal defect. Which of the following nursing assessments should be a priority?

• A. Assess nail beds for color and refill
• B. Assess for postoperative arrhythmias
• C. Auscultate for pulmonary congestion
• D. Monitor equality of peripheral pulses

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Postoperative arrhythmias are a common and potentially serious complication after cardiac surgery, making them a priority to monitor. Assessing for postoperative arrhythmias takes precedence over other assessments like checking nail beds for color and refill, auscultating for pulmonary congestion, or monitoring peripheral pulses as arrhythmias can have immediate and severe implications for the child's health.

4. The nurse is reviewing laboratory results on a client with acute renal failure. Which one of the following should be reported immediately?

• A. Blood urea nitrogen 50 mg/dl
• B. Hemoglobin of 10.3 g/dl
• C. Venous blood pH 7.30
• D. Serum potassium 6 mEq/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias and must be addressed promptly. The other options are not as urgent. A blood urea nitrogen level of 50 mg/dl may indicate kidney dysfunction but does not require immediate intervention. Hemoglobin of 10.3 g/dl may suggest anemia, which needs management but is not an immediate threat. A venous blood pH of 7.30 may indicate acidosis, which is concerning but not as acutely dangerous as hyperkalemia.

5. Why is it important for the healthcare provider to monitor blood pressure in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs?

• A. Orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect.
• B. Most antipsychotic drugs cause elevated blood pressure.
• C. This provides information on the amount of sodium allowed in the diet.
• D. It will indicate the need to institute anti-parkinsonian drugs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because monitoring for orthostatic hypotension is crucial when clients are receiving antipsychotic drugs since it is a common side effect. Orthostatic hypotension can lead to symptoms like dizziness and falls, making it essential to monitor blood pressure regularly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because most antipsychotic drugs do not typically cause elevated blood pressure, monitoring blood pressure is not directly related to the amount of sodium in the diet, and blood pressure monitoring is not primarily used to determine the need for anti-parkinsonian drugs in clients receiving antipsychotic medications.

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