Nursing Elites

1. A breastfeeding infant, screened for congenital hypothyroidism, is found to have low levels of thyroxine (T4) and high levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). What is the best explanation for this finding?

• A. The thyroxine level is low because the TSH level is high.
• B. High thyroxine levels do not normally occur in breastfeeding infants.
• C. The thyroid gland does not produce normal levels of thyroxine for several weeks after birth.
• D. The TSH is high because of the low production of T4 by the thyroid.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: High TSH and low T4 levels indicate that the thyroid gland is not producing enough hormones, which is a sign of congenital hypothyroidism. In this case, the high TSH is a compensatory response by the body to stimulate the thyroid to produce more T4. Choice A is incorrect because TSH does not directly affect T4 levels; rather, it is the other way around where low T4 levels lead to high TSH levels. Choice B is incorrect because high thyroxine levels are not expected in congenital hypothyroidism. Choice C is incorrect as the thyroid gland should be producing normal levels of thyroxine shortly after birth, making this explanation unlikely in the context of congenital hypothyroidism.

2. Which intervention is most helpful in relieving postpartum uterine contractions or 'afterpains'?

• A. Lying prone with a pillow on the abdomen.
• B. Using a breast pump.
• C. Massaging the abdomen.
• D. Giving oxytocic medications.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lying prone with a pillow on the abdomen is the most helpful intervention in relieving postpartum uterine contractions or 'afterpains.' This position provides counter-pressure and support to the uterus, helping to alleviate discomfort and promote uterine involution. Choice B, using a breast pump, is not effective in relieving afterpains as it focuses on milk expression. Massaging the abdomen (Choice C) may help with discomfort but does not provide the same level of support as lying prone with a pillow. Giving oxytocic medications (Choice D) is not typically the first-line intervention for afterpains unless there are specific medical indications.

3. The healthcare provider prescribes terbutaline (Brethine) for a client in preterm labor. Before initiating this prescription, it is most important for the LPN/LVN to assess the client for which condition?

• A. Gestational diabetes.
• B. Elevated blood pressure.
• C. Urinary tract infection.
• D. Swelling in lower extremities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gestational diabetes. Terbutaline (Brethine) is known to cause hyperglycemia, so it is crucial to assess for gestational diabetes before administering it. Assessing for elevated blood pressure (choice B), urinary tract infection (choice C), or swelling in lower extremities (choice D) is not directly related to the potential side effect of terbutaline in causing hyperglycemia.

4. A 6-week-old infant diagnosed with pyloric stenosis has recently developed projectile vomiting. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the infant is becoming dehydrated?

• A. Weak cry without tears.
• B. Bulging fontanel.
• C. Visible peristaltic wave.
• D. Palpable mass in the right upper quadrant.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In infants, a weak cry without tears is a classic sign of dehydration. Tears are produced by the lacrimal glands, and reduced tear production is a result of dehydration. This assessment finding should alert the nurse to the infant's dehydration status, requiring prompt intervention to prevent further complications.

5. The nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is exhibiting symptoms of a spinal headache 24 hours following the delivery of a normal newborn. Prior to the anesthesiologist's arrival on the unit, which action should the nurse perform?

• A. Apply an abdominal binder.
• B. Cleanse the spinal injection site.
• C. Insert an indwelling Foley catheter.
• D. Place procedure equipment at the bedside.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a postpartum client exhibiting symptoms of a spinal headache, applying an abdominal binder is a priority action. The abdominal binder can help reduce the severity of a spinal headache by increasing intra-abdominal pressure, which may relieve pressure on the dural sac and alleviate symptoms. This intervention can be performed promptly by the nurse to provide immediate relief while waiting for further evaluation and management by the anesthesiologist. Cleansing the spinal injection site (Choice B) is not the priority in this situation as the headache is likely due to a dural puncture during epidural anesthesia rather than infection. Inserting an indwelling Foley catheter (Choice C) and placing procedure equipment at the bedside (Choice D) are not the appropriate actions to address a spinal headache and should not take precedence over applying an abdominal binder.

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