HESI RN
Maternity HESI Quizlet
1. A neonate with congenital adrenal hypoplasia (CAH) presents with ambiguous genitalia. What is the primary nursing consideration when supporting the parents of a child with this anomaly?
- A. Discuss the need for cortisol and aldosterone replacement therapy after discharge
- B. Support the parents in their decision regarding the sex assignment of their child
- C. Offer information about ultrasonography and genotyping to determine sex assignment
- D. Explain that corrective surgical procedures consistent with sex assignment can be delayed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Supporting the parents in their decision regarding the sex assignment of their child is crucial as it respects the parental role in making this important decision and helps provide emotional support during a challenging time. The primary focus should be on helping the parents navigate the complexities and implications of determining the sex assignment for their child with ambiguous genitalia.
2. A 34-week primigravida woman with preeclampsia is receiving Lactated Ringer’s 500ml with magnesium sulfate 20 grams at the rate of 3g/hr. How many ml/hr should the nurse program the infusion pump?
- A. 75ml/hr
- B. 100ml/hr
- C. 50ml/hr
- D. 25ml/hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, divide the total quantity to be infused (500ml) by the total time (1 hour) which equals 500ml/hr. Since the magnesium sulfate is being given at 3g/hr, and 1g of magnesium sulfate is in 5ml of solution, the rate will be 3g/hr x 5ml/g = 15ml/hr. Therefore, the total infusion rate should be 500ml/hr + 15ml/hr = 515ml/hr. Hence, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 75ml/hr (515ml/hr total - 500ml/hr Lactated Ringer's rate). This choice is correct because it accounts for both the Lactated Ringer's and magnesium sulfate rates. Choice B, 100ml/hr, is incorrect as it does not consider the additional magnesium sulfate infusion rate. Choice C, 50ml/hr, is incorrect because it does not account for the magnesium sulfate infusion. Choice D, 25ml/hr, is incorrect as it is too low and does not consider the magnesium sulfate being infused concurrently.
3. Albumin 25% IV is prescribed for a child with nephrotic syndrome. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the medication is having the desired effect?
- A. Weight gain.
- B. Reduction of fever.
- C. Improved caloric intake.
- D. Reduction of edema.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduction of edema. Albumin helps reduce edema by increasing oncotic pressure, drawing fluid back into the blood vessels. In nephrotic syndrome, there is an abnormal loss of protein in the urine, leading to decreased oncotic pressure and fluid shifting into the interstitial spaces, causing edema. Administering albumin helps restore the oncotic pressure, reducing edema, which is a desirable effect of the medication.
4. A multiparous client is involuntarily pushing while being wheeled into the labor triage area. The nurse observes the fetal head presenting at the perineum. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Support the infant as it emerges.
- B. Review prenatal laboratory results.
- C. Obtain fetal heart tones.
- D. Apply suprapubic pressure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When the fetal head is visible at the perineum, the priority is to support the infant's birth to prevent injury. Providing support as the infant emerges helps ensure a safe delivery process and reduces the risk of complications associated with rapid or uncontrolled birth.
5. A client who had her first baby three months ago and is breastfeeding her infant tells the nurse that she is currently using the same diaphragm that she used before becoming pregnant. What information should the nurse provide this client?
- A. Use an alternative form of contraception until a new diaphragm is obtained.
- B. After weaning, the diaphragm should be resized.
- C. Avoid intercourse during ovulation until the diaphragm size is reassessed.
- D. If weight gain during pregnancy was no more than 20 pounds, the diaphragm is safe to use.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should advise the client to use an alternative form of contraception until a new diaphragm that fits correctly post-pregnancy is obtained. It is essential to ensure proper fit for effective contraception, making it crucial to use an alternative method until the diaphragm is resized.
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