Nursing Elites

1. A 3-month-old with myelomeningocele and atonic bladder is catheterized every 4hrs to prevent urinary retention. The home health nurse notes that the child has developed episodes of sneezing, urticarial, watery eyes, and a rash in the diaper area. What action is most important for the nurse to take?

• A. Auscultate the lungs for respiratory pneumonia.
• B. Change to latex-free gloves when handling infant.
• C. Draw blood to analyze for streptococcal infection.
• D. Apply zinc oxide to perineum with each diaper change.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Latex allergy is a concern in patients with myelomeningocele, so switching to latex-free gloves is important.

2. A client who had her first baby three months ago and is breastfeeding her infant tells the nurse that she is currently using the same diaphragm that she used before becoming pregnant. What information should the nurse provide this client?

• A. Use an alternative form of contraception until a new diaphragm is obtained.
• B. After weaning, the diaphragm should be resized.
• C. Avoid intercourse during ovulation until the diaphragm size is reassessed.
• D. If weight gain during pregnancy was no more than 20 pounds, the diaphragm is safe to use.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should advise the client to use an alternative form of contraception until a new diaphragm that fits correctly post-pregnancy is obtained. It is essential to ensure proper fit for effective contraception, making it crucial to use an alternative method until the diaphragm is resized.

3. The client at 10 weeks' gestation is palpated with the fundus at 3 fingerbreadths above the pubic symphysis. The client reports nausea, vomiting, and scant dark brown vaginal discharge. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Collect a urine sample for urinalysis.
• B. Measure vital signs.
• C. Recommend bed rest.
• D. Obtain human chorionic gonadotropin levels.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a pregnant client with a fundal height greater than expected at 10 weeks and experiencing scant dark brown vaginal discharge, there is a concern for a molar pregnancy. Assessing human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels is crucial in this situation to confirm or rule out this condition.

4. A client at 18-weeks gestation was informed this morning that she has an elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level. After the healthcare provider leaves the room, the client asks what she should do next. What information should the nurse provide?

• A. Inform her that a repeat alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) should be evaluated.
• B. Discuss options for intrauterine surgical correction of congenital defects.
• C. Reassure the client that the AFP results are likely to be a false reading.
• D. Explain that a sonogram should be scheduled for definitive results.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level in a pregnant client can indicate potential congenital anomalies in the fetus. A follow-up sonogram is necessary to provide definitive results and further evaluate the fetus for any possible abnormalities. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to explain to the client that scheduling a sonogram is the next appropriate step to assess the fetal well-being and address any concerns regarding the elevated AFP level. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a repeat AFP test alone, discussing surgical correction of defects, or assuming the results are false without further evaluation are not appropriate responses when dealing with a potentially serious issue like elevated AFP levels in pregnancy.

5. During a well-child visit for their child, one of the parents with an autosomal dominant disorder tells the nurse, 'We don’t plan on having any more children, since the next child is likely to inherit this disorder.' How should the nurse respond?

• A. Explain that the risk of inheriting the disorder decreases by 50% with each child the couple has.
• B. Acknowledge that the next child will inherit the disorder since the first child did not.
• C. Encourage the couple to reconsider their decision since the inheritance pattern may be sex-linked.
• D. Confirm that there is a 50% chance of their future children inheriting the disorder.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Confirming that there is a 50% chance of their future children inheriting the disorder is the correct response in this situation. Autosomal dominant disorders have a 50% chance of being passed on to each child. Providing accurate genetic counseling is essential to help the parents make informed decisions about family planning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because the risk of inheriting an autosomal dominant disorder remains at 50% for each child regardless of the number of children the couple has. Choice B is not appropriate as it does not provide helpful information or support to the parents. Choice C is misleading because autosomal dominant disorders follow a specific inheritance pattern and are not sex-linked.

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