HESI RN
Maternity HESI 2023 Quizlet
1. A 3-month-old with myelomeningocele and atonic bladder is catheterized every 4hrs to prevent urinary retention. The home health nurse notes that the child has developed episodes of sneezing, urticarial, watery eyes, and a rash in the diaper area. What action is most important for the nurse to take?
- A. Auscultate the lungs for respiratory pneumonia.
- B. Change to latex-free gloves when handling infant.
- C. Draw blood to analyze for streptococcal infection.
- D. Apply zinc oxide to perineum with each diaper change.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Latex allergy is a concern in patients with myelomeningocele, so switching to latex-free gloves is important.
2. A client with peripheral arterial disease (PAD) has cool and pale feet with diminished pulses. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Keep the legs elevated above the level of the heart.
- B. Encourage the client to exercise daily.
- C. Apply warm compresses to the affected area.
- D. Apply ice packs to the affected area.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In peripheral arterial disease (PAD), there is decreased blood flow to the extremities. Applying warm compresses helps dilate blood vessels, improve circulation, and relieve symptoms. Elevating the legs above the heart level may further compromise blood flow. Encouraging daily exercise is important in PAD management but may not be appropriate when the client has cool, pale feet with diminished pulses. Applying ice packs can worsen vasoconstriction and further reduce blood flow, exacerbating symptoms in PAD.
3. The RN is teaching a client about the initiation of the prescribed abstinence therapy using disulfiram (Antabuse). What information should the client acknowledge understanding?
- A. Completely abstain from heroin or cocaine use.
- B. Remain alcohol-free for 12 hours prior to the first dose.
- C. Attend monthly meetings of Alcoholics Anonymous.
- D. Admit to others that he is a substance user.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Remain alcohol-free for 12 hours prior to the first dose." It is essential for the client to understand the importance of abstaining from alcohol for at least 12 hours before starting disulfiram to prevent potential adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because disulfiram is specifically used to deter alcohol consumption, not heroin or cocaine use. Choice C is not directly related to the initiation of disulfiram therapy and attending AA meetings is not a requirement for taking disulfiram. Choice D is irrelevant and unnecessary for the initiation of disulfiram therapy.
4. A client recently diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which statements made by the client indicate a correct understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.)
- A. I need to ask for an antibiotic when scheduling a dental appointment.
- B. I’ll need to check my blood sugar often to prevent hypoglycemia.
- C. The dose of my pain medication may have to be adjusted.
- D. The need to watch for bleeding with anticoagulants.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct statements indicating a proper understanding of the teaching include the need for antibiotics for dental work, the potential need to adjust pain medication doses, and the importance of monitoring blood sugar levels. The statement about watching for bleeding with anticoagulants is not directly related to CKD and discharge instructions for this condition. Therefore, option A is correct, as it addresses relevant concerns for a client with CKD, while the other options are either unrelated or not specifically mentioned in the scenario.
5. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?
- A. Initiate insulin therapy.
- B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
- C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
- D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.