Nursing Elites

1. In planning care for a client at 30-weeks gestation experiencing preterm labor, what maternal prescription is most important in preventing this fetus from developing respiratory syndrome?

• A. Betamethasone (Celestone) 12mg deep IM.
• B. Butorphanol 1mg IV push q2h PRN pain.
• C. Ampicillin 1g IV push q8h.
• D. Terbutaline (Brethine) 0.25mg subcutaneously q15 minutes x3.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The administration of Betamethasone (Celestone) is crucial in cases of preterm labor to promote fetal lung maturation and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn. Betamethasone helps enhance the production of surfactant in the fetal lungs, improving their functionality and decreasing the likelihood of respiratory complications upon birth. Butorphanol is an analgesic and not indicated for preventing respiratory syndrome in preterm infants. Ampicillin is an antibiotic used for infection prevention and treatment, not for fetal lung maturation. Terbutaline is a tocolytic agent used to inhibit contractions, but it does not have a direct effect on fetal lung maturity.

2. At 14-weeks gestation, a client arrives at the Emergency Center complaining of a dull pain in the right lower quadrant of her abdomen. The LPN/LVN obtains a blood sample and initiates an IV. Thirty minutes after admission, the client reports feeling a sharp abdominal pain and shoulder pain. Assessment findings include diaphoresis, a heart rate of 120 beats/minute, and a blood pressure of 86/48. Which action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Check the hematocrit results.
• B. Administer pain medication.
• C. Increase the rate of IV fluids.
• D. Monitor the client for contractions.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client's symptoms suggest hypovolemic shock, possibly due to an ectopic pregnancy. Increasing IV fluids is crucial to stabilize the client by improving blood pressure and perfusion. This intervention helps address the underlying issue of hypovolemia and supports the client's hemodynamic status, which takes priority in this emergent situation.

3. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer magnesium sulfate to a laboring client whose blood pressure has increased from 110/60 mmHg to 140/90 mmHg. Which action is the highest priority?

• A. Provide a quiet environment with subdued lighting.
• B. Have calcium gluconate immediately available.
• C. Assess deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) every 4 hours.
• D. Insert a Foley catheter with a urimeter to monitor hourly output.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Having calcium gluconate readily available is crucial when administering magnesium sulfate, as it serves as the antidote in case of magnesium toxicity. Magnesium sulfate can lead to respiratory depression and cardiac arrest in cases of overdose or toxicity, making the prompt availability of calcium gluconate essential for immediate administration to counteract these effects. Providing a quiet environment with subdued lighting may be beneficial for the client's comfort but is not the highest priority in this situation. Assessing deep tendon reflexes every 4 hours is important when administering magnesium sulfate, but it is not the highest priority compared to having calcium gluconate available. Inserting a Foley catheter with a urimeter to monitor hourly output is not the highest priority when preparing to administer magnesium sulfate in this scenario.

4. A 26-year-old, gravida 2, para 1 client is admitted to the hospital at 28 weeks gestation in preterm labor. She is given 3 doses of terbutaline sulfate (Brethine) 0.25 mg subcutaneously to stop her labor contractions. The LPN/LVN plans to monitor for which primary side effect of terbutaline sulfate?

• A. Drowsiness and bradycardia.
• B. Depressed reflexes and increased respirations.
• C. Tachycardia and a feeling of nervousness.
• D. A flushed, warm feeling and a dry mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary side effects of terbutaline sulfate are related to its beta-adrenergic effects. Tachycardia and nervousness are common side effects of terbutaline sulfate. Tachycardia is expected due to the drug's beta-agonist properties, while nervousness can result from the stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors. It is crucial to monitor the client for these side effects to ensure early recognition and appropriate management.

5. A one-day-old neonate develops a cephalohematoma. The nurse should closely assess this neonate for which common complication?

• A. Jaundice.
• B. Poor feeding.
• C. Brain injury.
• D. Hypoglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A cephalohematoma is a collection of blood between the skull and the periosteum. As the blood breaks down, there is an increased risk of jaundice due to the release of bilirubin from the breakdown of red blood cells. Jaundice is a common complication associated with cephalohematoma in neonates. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the neonate for signs of jaundice and manage it accordingly.

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