HESI RN TEST BANK

HESI RN Exit Exam

A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

    A. Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed

    B. A pelvic exam is also needed before cancer is ruled out

    C. Pap smear evaluation should be continued every six months

    D. One additional negative Pap smear in six months is needed

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a 60-year-old female client with a family history of ovarian cancer and an abdominal mass, further evaluation involving surgery may be needed to rule out ovarian cancer. The presence of an abdominal mass raises suspicion for a possible malignancy, and a negative Pap smear result does not rule out ovarian cancer. A pelvic exam alone may not provide sufficient information to confirm or rule out ovarian cancer. Continuing Pap smear evaluations every six months or waiting for one additional negative Pap smear in six months is not appropriate in this scenario, as the abdominal mass requires immediate attention and further evaluation.

The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

  • A. Oxygen saturation of 94%
  • B. Crepitus around the insertion site
  • C. Subcutaneous emphysema
  • D. Drainage of 50 ml per hour

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Subcutaneous emphysema is the most critical finding requiring immediate intervention in a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. It may indicate a pneumothorax recurrence or air leak, which can lead to respiratory compromise. Oxygen saturation of 94% is slightly low but may not require immediate intervention. Crepitus around the insertion site can be a normal finding post-procedure. Drainage of 50 ml per hour is within the expected range for a chest tube output and does not indicate an immediate concern.

During shift report, the central electrocardiogram (EKG) monitoring system alarms. Which client alarm should the nurse investigate first?

  • A. Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds
  • B. Oxygen saturation rate of 88%
  • C. Eight premature ventricular beats every minute
  • D. Disconnected monitor signal for the last 6 minutes.

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds. Respiratory apnea indicates a cessation of breathing, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention. Priority should be given to assessing and managing airway, breathing, and circulation. Option B, oxygen saturation rate of 88%, can indicate hypoxemia, but addressing the lack of breathing takes precedence. Option C, eight premature ventricular beats every minute, and option D, a disconnected monitor signal, are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life compared to respiratory apnea.

While auscultating a client's heart sounds, which description should the nurse use to document a swishing sound related to blood turbulence or valvular defect?

  • A. S1 S2
  • B. S1 S2 S3
  • C. Murmur
  • D. Pericardial friction rub

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Murmur.' A murmur is auscultated as a swishing sound associated with blood turbulence caused by the heart or a valvular defect. Choices 'A: S1 S2' and 'B: S1 S2 S3' refer to normal heart sounds, specifically the closure of heart valves. 'D: Pericardial friction rub' is a dry, rubbing or grating sound caused by inflammation of the pericardial sac and is not associated with blood flow or valvular issues.

After a sudden loss of consciousness, a female client is taken to the ED, and the initial assessment indicates that her blood glucose level is critically low. Once her glucose level is stabilized, the client reports that she was recently diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and is being treated at an outpatient clinic. Which intervention is most important to include in this client's discharge plan?

  • A. Describe the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia.
  • B. Encourage a low-carbohydrate and high-protein diet.
  • C. Reinforce the need to continue outpatient treatment.
  • D. Suggest wearing a medical alert bracelet at all times.

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging a low-carbohydrate and high-protein diet is crucial for a client recovering from anorexia nervosa to prevent hypoglycemic episodes. Choice A is not the most important intervention at this point since the client is already aware of hypoglycemia based on the recent event. Choice C is important but not the priority in this situation where dietary intervention is crucial. Choice D, suggesting a medical alert bracelet, is not as essential as ensuring proper nutrition to prevent further hypoglycemic episodes.

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