Nursing Elites

1. A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed
• B. A pelvic exam is also needed before cancer is ruled out
• C. Pap smear evaluation should be continued every six months
• D. One additional negative Pap smear in six months is needed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 60-year-old female client with a family history of ovarian cancer and an abdominal mass, further evaluation involving surgery may be needed to rule out ovarian cancer. The presence of an abdominal mass raises suspicion for a possible malignancy, and a negative Pap smear result does not rule out ovarian cancer. A pelvic exam alone may not provide sufficient information to confirm or rule out ovarian cancer. Continuing Pap smear evaluations every six months or waiting for one additional negative Pap smear in six months is not appropriate in this scenario, as the abdominal mass requires immediate attention and further evaluation.

2. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Fever of 100.4°F
• B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
• C. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
• D. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A fever of 100.4°F is a clinical finding that requires immediate intervention in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis. Fever may indicate an underlying infection, which can be severe in individuals with compromised renal function. Prompt assessment and treatment are essential to prevent worsening of the infection and potential complications. Heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate are also important parameters to monitor in clients with ESRD, but in this scenario, the fever takes precedence due to its potential to indicate a critical condition that requires urgent attention.

3. Which needle should the nurse use to administer intravenous fluids (IV) via a client's implanted port?

• A. The one with the clamp and no needle
• B. A butterfly needle
• C. A non-coring (Huber) needle
• D. A standard hypodermic needle

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct needle to use for administering intravenous fluids via an implanted port is a non-coring (Huber) needle. This type of needle is specifically designed to access implanted ports without coring the septum, which helps prevent damage. Choice A, the one with the clamp and no needle, is incorrect as it does not describe a needle suitable for accessing an implanted port. Choice B, a butterfly needle, is not typically used for accessing implanted ports. Choice D, a standard hypodermic needle, is not ideal for accessing ports as it can damage the septum.

4. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and warfarin (Coumadin). Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Heart rate of 58 beats per minute
• B. Presence of a new murmur
• C. INR of 2.5
• D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The presence of a new murmur in a client with atrial fibrillation may indicate a valvular problem or other complications, requiring immediate reporting. A heart rate of 58 beats per minute is within the normal range for some individuals with atrial fibrillation, so it is not an immediate concern. An INR of 2.5 is within the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating appropriate anticoagulation. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is also within the normal range and does not pose an immediate threat to the client's health.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic heart failure who is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L
• B. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
• C. Serum creatinine of 1.8 mg/dL
• D. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is most concerning in a client receiving furosemide as it indicates hypokalemia, which requires immediate intervention. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L and serum creatinine of 1.8 mg/dL are within normal ranges and do not require immediate intervention in this case. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL is elevated but does not pose an immediate threat to the client's life in the context of heart failure and furosemide therapy.

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