Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with shortness of breath and chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs)
• D. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrocardiogram (ECG). An ECG should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia in a client presenting with shortness of breath and chest pain. This test helps in evaluating the electrical activity of the heart and can identify signs of myocardial infarction or other cardiac issues. Choice B, Chest X-ray, may be ordered after the ECG to assess for pulmonary conditions like pneumonia or effusions. Choice C, Pulmonary function tests (PFTs), are used to evaluate lung function and are not the primary diagnostic tests for a client with symptoms of cardiac origin. Choice D, Arterial blood gases (ABGs), may provide information about oxygenation but are not the initial test indicated for a client with suspected cardiac issues.

2. A male client with impaired renal function who takes ibuprofen daily for chronic arthritis is showing signs of gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. After administering IV fluids and a blood transfusion, his blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg, and his renal output is 20 ml/hour. Which intervention should the nurse include in his care plan?

• A. Maintain the client NPO during the diuresis phase.
• B. Evaluate daily serial renal laboratory studies for progressive elevations.
• C. Observe the urine character for sedimentation and cloudy appearance.
• D. Monitor for the onset of polyuria greater than 150 ml/hour.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct intervention for the nurse to include in the care plan is to evaluate daily serial renal laboratory studies for progressive elevations. This is crucial in monitoring renal function and detecting any worsening renal impairment. Option A is not directly related to managing renal function in this case. Option C focuses more on urinary characteristics rather than renal function monitoring. Option D addresses polyuria, which is an excessive urine output, but it does not specifically address the need for evaluating renal laboratory studies for progressive elevations.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. INR of 3.5
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
• C. Headache
• D. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A headache in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation receiving warfarin (Coumadin) is concerning as it may indicate bleeding, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. Headaches can be a symptom of increased intracranial pressure due to bleeding, especially in patients on anticoagulants. Options A and B are within acceptable ranges for a client on warfarin therapy, indicating that the medication is effectively managing the clotting times. Option D, a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not directly related to the client's condition of atrial fibrillation and warfarin therapy.

4. A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is admitted with chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
• D. Echocardiogram

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrocardiogram (ECG). An electrocardiogram should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia in a client with a history of CAD and chest pain. An ECG provides immediate information about the heart's electrical activity, helping to identify signs of ischemia or a heart attack. While other diagnostic tests like chest X-ray, arterial blood gases, and echocardiogram may also be necessary in the evaluation of chest pain, they do not provide the initial direct assessment of cardiac ischemia that an ECG does.

5. The client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
• B. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L
• C. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
• D. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dl

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L is concerning in a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen as it indicates metabolic acidosis, which can occur due to the body compensating for chronic respiratory acidosis. This condition requires immediate intervention to restore the acid-base balance. Choice A, serum sodium of 135 mEq/L, is within normal range (135-145 mEq/L) and not directly related to COPD or oxygen therapy. Choice B, serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L, falls within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and is not typically affected by COPD or oxygen therapy. Choice D, serum glucose of 300 mg/dl, though elevated, is not directly related to COPD or oxygen therapy and would require management but is not the most concerning value in this scenario.

Similar Questions