Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with shortness of breath and chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs)
• D. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrocardiogram (ECG). An ECG should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia in a client presenting with shortness of breath and chest pain. This test helps in evaluating the electrical activity of the heart and can identify signs of myocardial infarction or other cardiac issues. Choice B, Chest X-ray, may be ordered after the ECG to assess for pulmonary conditions like pneumonia or effusions. Choice C, Pulmonary function tests (PFTs), are used to evaluate lung function and are not the primary diagnostic tests for a client with symptoms of cardiac origin. Choice D, Arterial blood gases (ABGs), may provide information about oxygenation but are not the initial test indicated for a client with suspected cardiac issues.

2. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is experiencing chest pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• B. Administer aspirin as prescribed.
• C. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually as prescribed.
• D. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the initial priority in managing chest pain in a client with a history of myocardial infarction. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation, which is crucial in reducing myocardial damage. While administering aspirin and nitroglycerin are essential interventions in the treatment of myocardial infarction, oxygen therapy takes precedence because it addresses the immediate need for oxygen supply to the heart muscle. Obtaining an ECG is important but can be done after ensuring adequate oxygenation.

3. An adult client comes to the clinic and reports his concern over a lump that 'just popped up on my neck about a week ago.' In performing an examination of the lump, the nurse palpates a large, non-tender, hardened left subclavian lymph node. There is no overlying tissue inflammation. What do these findings suggest?

• A. Malignancy
• B. Infection
• C. Benign cyst
• D. Lymphadenitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The findings of a large, non-tender, hardened lymph node, especially in the absence of overlying tissue inflammation, are indicative of malignancy. These characteristics raise suspicion for cancer, prompting the need for further investigation. Choice B, Infection, is incorrect because infection would typically present as a tender and possibly swollen lymph node. Choice C, Benign cyst, is incorrect as cysts are usually soft and movable. Choice D, Lymphadenitis, is incorrect as lymphadenitis usually presents with tender and enlarged lymph nodes in response to an infection.

4. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to include in the daily plan of care for a client with a burned extremity?

• A. Distal pulse intensity
• B. Skin integrity
• C. Pain levels
• D. Range of motion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Distal pulse intensity. Monitoring distal pulses is crucial to ensure that circulation to the extremity is not compromised. This assessment helps in detecting any signs of decreased circulation, which is vital in managing a burned extremity. While skin integrity (choice B), pain levels (choice C), and range of motion (choice D) are also important assessments, monitoring distal pulse intensity takes precedence as it directly reflects the perfusion status of the affected extremity in a burned client.

5. An adult female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. After starting medication therapy, the nurse notices the client has more energy, is giving away her belongings, and has an elevated mood. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Support the client by telling her what wonderful progress she is making.
• B. Ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself.
• C. Reassure the client that the antidepressant drugs are apparently effective.
• D. Tell the client to keep her belongings because she will need them at discharge.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with major depressive disorder shows signs of increased energy, giving away belongings, and an elevated mood, it could indicate a shift towards suicidal behavior. Therefore, the best intervention for the nurse is to ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself. This is crucial to assess the client's risk for suicide and provide necessary interventions. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the potential risk of harm to the client and do not prioritize the immediate assessment required in this situation.

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