Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with shortness of breath and chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs)
• D. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrocardiogram (ECG). An ECG should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia in a client presenting with shortness of breath and chest pain. This test helps in evaluating the electrical activity of the heart and can identify signs of myocardial infarction or other cardiac issues. Choice B, Chest X-ray, may be ordered after the ECG to assess for pulmonary conditions like pneumonia or effusions. Choice C, Pulmonary function tests (PFTs), are used to evaluate lung function and are not the primary diagnostic tests for a client with symptoms of cardiac origin. Choice D, Arterial blood gases (ABGs), may provide information about oxygenation but are not the initial test indicated for a client with suspected cardiac issues.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy who has thick, tenacious secretions. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Crepitus around the tracheostomy site
• B. Dry and cracked tracheostomy site
• C. Mucous plugging of the tracheostomy tube
• D. Yellowing of the skin around the tracheostomy site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Mucous plugging of the tracheostomy tube is the most concerning assessment finding in a client with a tracheostomy. It can lead to airway obstruction, which requires immediate intervention to ensure the client's airway remains patent. Crepitus around the tracheostomy site may indicate subcutaneous emphysema but is not as urgent as a blocked airway. A dry and cracked tracheostomy site may indicate poor skin integrity but does not pose an immediate threat to the client's airway. Yellowing of the skin around the tracheostomy site could suggest a localized infection, but it is not as critical as a potential airway obstruction caused by mucous plugging.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• B. Elevate the head of the bed.
• C. Obtain a sputum culture.
• D. Administer antibiotics as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer oxygen therapy as prescribed. In COPD exacerbation, the priority is to improve oxygenation. Administering oxygen therapy helps ensure an adequate oxygen supply to the body's tissues. Elevating the head of the bed can improve ventilation but is not the first intervention needed in this situation. Obtaining a sputum culture and administering antibiotics are important in COPD exacerbation but come after ensuring proper oxygenation.

4. When preparing to insert a nasogastric (NG) tube for a client admitted to the surgical unit with symptoms of a possible intestinal obstruction, which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed 60 to 90 degrees
• B. Administer an antiemetic
• C. Prepare the client for surgery
• D. Provide oral care

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 60 to 90 degrees is essential when inserting an NG tube. This position helps facilitate the passage of the tube through the esophagus into the stomach and reduces the risk of aspiration. Administering an antiemetic may be necessary to control nausea or vomiting, but it is not the primary intervention when inserting an NG tube. Preparing the client for surgery is not indicated solely for the insertion of an NG tube. Providing oral care is important for maintaining oral hygiene but is not directly related to inserting an NG tube.

5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of septic shock. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg
• B. Temperature of 100.4°F
• C. Heart rate of 120 beats per minute
• D. Urine output of 30 ml/hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with septic shock, a heart rate of 120 beats per minute is a critical clinical finding that requires immediate intervention. A rapid heart rate can indicate worsening sepsis and inadequate tissue perfusion. Correcting the underlying cause of the tachycardia and stabilizing the heart rate is crucial in managing septic shock. The other options, while important, do not represent an immediate threat to the patient's condition. A blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg may be expected in septic shock, a temperature of 100.4°F is mildly elevated, and a urine output of 30 ml/hour, though decreased, may not be an immediate concern in the context of septic shock.

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