Nursing Elites

1. After multiple attempts to stop drinking, an adult male is admitted to the medical intensive care unit (MICU) with delirium tremens. He is tachycardic, diaphoretic, restless, and disoriented. Which finding indicates a life-threatening condition?

• A. Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves
• B. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure
• C. Restlessness and anxiety
• D. Diaphoresis and dehydration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves. In the context of an adult male with delirium tremens and symptoms like tachycardia, diaphoresis, restlessness, and disorientation, the presence of widening QRS complexes and flat T waves on an ECG suggests severe electrolyte imbalance, particularly hypokalemia. This severe electrolyte imbalance can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure (choice B) can be expected in delirium tremens but do not directly indicate a life-threatening condition as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do. Restlessness and anxiety (choice C) are common symptoms of delirium tremens but do not specifically signify a life-threatening condition. Diaphoresis and dehydration (choice D) are also common in delirium tremens but do not directly point towards a life-threatening electrolyte imbalance as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do.

2. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and jaundice. Which clinical finding is most concerning?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Increased abdominal girth
• C. Confusion and altered mental status
• D. Yellowing of the skin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Confusion and altered mental status are the most concerning clinical findings in a client with cirrhosis because they may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Peripheral edema (choice A) and increased abdominal girth (choice B) are common manifestations of cirrhosis but are not as acutely concerning as signs of hepatic encephalopathy. Yellowing of the skin (choice D) is due to jaundice, which is already present in the client and does not directly indicate a worsening condition like confusion and altered mental status.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
• B. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
• C. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL
• D. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is most concerning in a client with CKD as it indicates severe hyperkalemia, requiring immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Serum sodium levels within the normal range (135 mEq/L) are not immediately concerning. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL may indicate impaired kidney function but does not require immediate intervention for hyperkalemia. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL is within normal limits and does not directly correlate with hyperkalemia in this scenario.

4. An adult client comes to the clinic and reports his concern over a lump that 'just popped up on my neck about a week ago.' In performing an examination of the lump, the nurse palpates a large, non-tender, hardened left subclavian lymph node. There is no overlying tissue inflammation. What do these findings suggest?

• A. Malignancy
• B. Infection
• C. Benign cyst
• D. Lymphadenitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The findings of a large, non-tender, hardened lymph node, especially in the absence of overlying tissue inflammation, are indicative of malignancy. These characteristics raise suspicion for cancer, prompting the need for further investigation. Choice B, Infection, is incorrect because infection would typically present as a tender and possibly swollen lymph node. Choice C, Benign cyst, is incorrect as cysts are usually soft and movable. Choice D, Lymphadenitis, is incorrect as lymphadenitis usually presents with tender and enlarged lymph nodes in response to an infection.

5. In assessing an adult client with a partial rebreather mask, the nurse notes that the oxygen reservoir bag does not deflate completely during inspiration and the client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths/minute. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage the client to take deep breaths
• B. Remove the mask to deflate the bag
• C. Increase the liter flow of oxygen
• D. Document the assessment data

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to document the assessment data. In this scenario, the findings indicate that the partial rebreather mask is functioning correctly as the reservoir bag should not deflate completely during inspiration. Additionally, the client's respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute falls within the normal range. There is no need to encourage the client to take deep breaths, as the respiratory rate is normal, and doing so may disrupt the client's breathing pattern. Removing the mask to deflate the bag or increasing the liter flow of oxygen are unnecessary actions based on the assessment findings.

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