Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing to begin a medication regimen for a patient who will receive intravenous ampicillin and gentamicin. Which is an important nursing action?

• A. Administer each antibiotic to infuse over 15 to 20 minutes.
• B. Order serum peak and trough levels of ampicillin.
• C. Prepare the schedule so that the drugs are given at the same time.
• D. Set up separate tubing sets for each drug labeled with the drug name and date.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When administering intravenous aminoglycosides like gentamicin with penicillins such as ampicillin, it is crucial to avoid mixing them in the same container. Separate tubing sets labeled with the drug name and date should be used to prevent interactions between the medications. Administering each antibiotic over 15 to 20 minutes (Choice A) may not be appropriate for all medications and does not address the issue of compatibility. Ordering serum peak and trough levels of ampicillin (Choice B) is important for monitoring drug levels but does not directly address the administration process. Preparing a schedule to give drugs simultaneously (Choice C) may increase the risk of drug interactions and is not recommended when administering incompatible medications.

2. A client tells the nurse that he has been experiencing frequent heartburn and has been 'living on antacids.' For which acid-base disturbance does the nurse recognize a risk?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic alkalosis. In this scenario, the client's frequent use of antacids containing alkaline components can lead to an excess of bicarbonate in the body, causing metabolic alkalosis. Oral antacids work by neutralizing stomach acid, potentially leading to an alkaline shift in the body's pH balance. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Metabolic acidosis is not typically associated with antacid use. Respiratory acidosis and respiratory alkalosis are related to respiratory system dysfunction rather than antacid ingestion.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus is scheduled to have blood drawn for a fasting blood glucose determination in the morning. What does the nurse tell the client is acceptable to consume on the morning of the test?

• A. Water
• B. Tea without sugar
• C. Coffee without milk
• D. Clear liquids like apple juice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Water. A client scheduled for a fasting blood glucose test should only consume water after midnight to ensure accurate test results. Choosing options B, C, or D, which include tea, coffee, or clear liquids like apple juice, is incorrect as they may contain substances that can affect the blood glucose levels, leading to inaccurate test results.

4. A nurse reviews the laboratory findings of a client with a urinary tract infection. The laboratory report notes a “shift to the left” in the client’s white blood cell count. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Request that the laboratory perform a differential analysis on the white blood cells.
• B. Notify the provider and start an intravenous line for parenteral antibiotics.
• C. Collaborate with the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to strain the client’s urine for renal calculi.
• D. Assess the client for a potential allergic reaction and anaphylactic shock.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A “shift to the left” in a white blood cell count indicates an increase in band cells, which is typically associated with urosepsis. In this scenario, the nurse should notify the provider and initiate IV antibiotics as a left shift is often seen in severe infections like urosepsis. Requesting a differential analysis on white blood cells would not be the immediate action needed in response to a left shift. Collaborating to strain urine for renal calculi is unrelated to the situation of a left shift in white blood cells due to urosepsis. Assessing for allergic reactions and anaphylactic shock is not the priority as a left shift is not indicative of an allergic response; it is associated with an increase in band cells, not eosinophils.

5. The healthcare professional is preparing to give a dose of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) and learns that the patient takes warfarin (Coumadin). The healthcare professional will request an order for

• A. a decreased dose of TMP-SMX.
• B. a different antibiotic.
• C. an increased dose of warfarin.
• D. coagulation studies.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sulfonamides, like trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX), can potentiate the anticoagulant effects of warfarin (Coumadin). To monitor the patient's response and prevent adverse effects, the healthcare professional should request coagulation studies, such as International Normalized Ratio (INR) levels. Choosing a decreased dose of TMP-SMX would not address the potential drug interaction between TMP-SMX and warfarin. Opting for a different antibiotic is not necessary if the interaction can be managed by monitoring. Increasing the dose of warfarin without monitoring could lead to excessive anticoagulation and adverse events, so it's not the appropriate action in this scenario.

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