Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing to begin a medication regimen for a patient who will receive intravenous ampicillin and gentamicin. Which is an important nursing action?

• A. Administer each antibiotic to infuse over 15 to 20 minutes.
• B. Order serum peak and trough levels of ampicillin.
• C. Prepare the schedule so that the drugs are given at the same time.
• D. Set up separate tubing sets for each drug labeled with the drug name and date.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When administering intravenous aminoglycosides like gentamicin with penicillins such as ampicillin, it is crucial to avoid mixing them in the same container. Separate tubing sets labeled with the drug name and date should be used to prevent interactions between the medications. Administering each antibiotic over 15 to 20 minutes (Choice A) may not be appropriate for all medications and does not address the issue of compatibility. Ordering serum peak and trough levels of ampicillin (Choice B) is important for monitoring drug levels but does not directly address the administration process. Preparing a schedule to give drugs simultaneously (Choice C) may increase the risk of drug interactions and is not recommended when administering incompatible medications.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer clarithromycin to a patient. When performing a medication history, the nurse learns that the patient takes warfarin to treat atrial fibrillation. The nurse will perform which action?

• A. Ask the provider if azithromycin may be used instead of clarithromycin.
• B. Obtain an order for continuous cardiovascular monitoring.
• C. Request an order for periodic serum warfarin levels.
• D. Withhold the clarithromycin and notify the provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient taking warfarin also needs to receive clarithromycin, it is essential to monitor periodic serum warfarin levels. Macrolides, including clarithromycin, can increase serum levels of drugs like warfarin. Monitoring serum drug levels helps ensure that the patient's warfarin dose can be adjusted, if necessary, to maintain therapeutic levels. Asking about using azithromycin instead is not the most appropriate action in this situation, as all macrolides can interact with warfarin. Continuous cardiovascular monitoring is not indicated solely based on the use of clarithromycin. Withholding the clarithromycin without proper assessment could delay necessary treatment and is not the best initial action.

3. A client with cirrhosis develops increasing pedal edema and ascites. What dietary modification is most important for the nurse to teach this client?

• A. Avoid high carbohydrate foods.
• B. Decrease intake of fat-soluble vitamins.
• C. Decrease caloric intake.
• D. Restrict salt and fluid intake.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to restrict salt and fluid intake. In clients with cirrhosis presenting with pedal edema and ascites, excessive fluid retention occurs, necessitating the restriction of salt and fluid to alleviate these symptoms. Choice A, avoiding high carbohydrate foods, is not the priority in this situation. Decreasing intake of fat-soluble vitamins (Choice B) is not specifically indicated for managing edema and ascites in cirrhosis. While maintaining an appropriate caloric intake is important, decreasing caloric intake (Choice C) is not the primary focus when addressing fluid retention in cirrhosis.

4. In the change-of-shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a Stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

• A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
• B. A deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues.
• C. An area of erythema that is painful to touch.
• D. Visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A Stage 2 pressure ulcer typically presents as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed. This appearance is characteristic of a Stage 2 pressure ulcer where there is partial thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and possibly the dermis. Choice B, a deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues, is more indicative of a Stage 3 or Stage 4 pressure ulcer where the ulcer extends into deeper tissue layers. Choice C, an area of erythema that is painful to touch, is more commonly seen in early-stage pressure ulcers such as Stage 1. Choice D, visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing, is characteristic of a more severe stage of pressure ulcer beyond Stage 2.

5. A client with renal calculi is being assessed by a nurse. Which question should the nurse ask?

• A. Is there a family history of this problem?
• B. Do you consume cranberry juice?
• C. Do you urinate after sexual intercourse?
• D. Do you have burning sensation during urination?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a client with renal calculi, it is important for the nurse to inquire about a family history of the problem. There is a genetic predisposition associated with renal stone formation, making it essential to assess if other family members have experienced renal stones. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to renal calculi. Consuming cranberry juice is more relevant to urinary tract health, urinating after sexual intercourse is related to preventing urinary tract infections, and experiencing a burning sensation during urination is a symptom commonly associated with urinary tract infections, not renal calculi.

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