HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Assignment Exam
1. A woman has been scheduled for a routine mammogram. What should the nurse tell the client?
- A. That mammography takes about 1 hour
- B. Not to eat or drink on the morning of the test
- C. That there is no discomfort associated with the procedure
- D. That deodorants, powders, or creams used in the axillary or breast area must be washed off before the test
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid using deodorants, powders, or creams on the day of the mammogram. These products used in the axillary or breast area can interfere with the mammogram results and must be washed off before the test. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because mammography typically takes less than 30 minutes, there is no need for fasting before the test, and some discomfort may be experienced during the procedure.
2. A nurse plans care for an older adult client. Which interventions should the nurse include in this client’s plan of care to promote kidney health? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Ensure adequate fluid intake.
- B. Leave the bathroom light on at night.
- C. Encourage use of the toilet every 6 hours.
- D. A & B
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct interventions to promote kidney health in an older adult client include ensuring adequate fluid intake to maintain hydration and leaving the bathroom light on at night to promote safe ambulation. Adequate hydration supports kidney function and helps prevent urinary tract infections. Encouraging the use of the toilet every 6 hours is not specific to kidney health and may not be individualized to the client's needs. Providing thorough perineal care after each voiding is important for hygiene but not directly related to promoting kidney health. Assessing for urinary retention and urinary tract infections is crucial but falls under assessment rather than interventions for promoting kidney health specifically.
3. In a patient with asthma, which of the following is the most important indicator of respiratory function?
- A. Oxygen saturation.
- B. Respiratory rate.
- C. Arterial blood gases.
- D. Peak expiratory flow rate.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The peak expiratory flow rate is the most important indicator of respiratory function in asthma because it measures how quickly air can be exhaled, reflecting the severity of airflow limitation. Oxygen saturation (Choice A) is important in assessing oxygenation, but it does not directly reflect respiratory function. Respiratory rate (Choice B) can provide information on breathing patterns but does not quantify airflow limitation. Arterial blood gases (Choice C) give information about gas exchange but are not as specific for assessing asthma control and severity as peak expiratory flow rate.
4. A healthcare professional reviews the blood gas results of a client in respiratory distress. The pH is 7.32, and the PCO2 is 50 mm Hg. Which of the following acid-base imbalances does the professional recognize in these findings?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In respiratory acidosis, the pH is low (<7.35) and the PCO2 is increased (>45 mm Hg). These findings indicate that the client is experiencing respiratory acidosis, a condition where there is an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood due to inadequate ventilation, commonly seen in respiratory distress. Metabolic acidosis (Choice A) is characterized by a low pH and decreased bicarbonate levels, which is not the case in this scenario. Metabolic alkalosis (Choice B) is associated with a high pH and increased bicarbonate levels. Respiratory alkalosis (Choice D) is marked by a high pH and decreased PCO2, opposite to the values presented in the blood gas results of this client.
5. What is the primary purpose of administering anticoagulants to a patient with atrial fibrillation?
- A. To reduce blood pressure.
- B. To prevent clot formation.
- C. To prevent arrhythmias.
- D. To reduce inflammation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of administering anticoagulants to a patient with atrial fibrillation is to prevent clot formation. Patients with atrial fibrillation are at an increased risk of forming blood clots in the heart, which can lead to stroke if they travel to the brain. Anticoagulants help to reduce this risk by inhibiting the clotting process. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect because anticoagulants do not primarily aim to reduce blood pressure, prevent arrhythmias, or reduce inflammation in patients with atrial fibrillation.
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