Nursing Elites

1. A 3-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with severe dehydration. The healthcare provider prescribes an IV infusion of 0.9% normal saline. The nurse notes that the child’s heart rate is 150 beats per minute, and the blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer the IV fluids as prescribed
• B. Notify the healthcare provider
• C. Check the child’s urine output
• D. Reassess the child’s vital signs in 30 minutes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a pediatric patient with severe dehydration and signs of compromised hemodynamics such as tachycardia (heart rate of 150 bpm) and hypotension (blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg), the priority intervention is to administer IV fluids as prescribed. Immediate fluid resuscitation is essential to restore hydration, improve perfusion, and stabilize the child's vital signs. While it's important to monitor urine output, initiating fluid resuscitation takes precedence in this situation. Notifying the healthcare provider can cause a delay in critical intervention, and waiting to reassess vital signs in 30 minutes can be detrimental in a child with severe dehydration and compromised hemodynamics.

2. A 14-year-old adolescent with a history of substance abuse is brought to the emergency department by the parents, who suspect that the adolescent has relapsed. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Obtain a urine sample for toxicology screening
• B. Discuss treatment options with the parents
• C. Establish a therapeutic relationship with the adolescent
• D. Administer a medication to reverse the effects of the substance

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse's priority action should be to obtain a urine sample for toxicology screening. This step is crucial in identifying the substances involved in the relapse, which will guide appropriate treatment strategies. By knowing the specific substances, healthcare providers can tailor treatment plans effectively. Establishing a therapeutic relationship and discussing treatment options come after obtaining necessary diagnostic information to ensure a comprehensive care plan. Administering a medication to reverse substance effects is not the initial priority; identification of the substances through toxicology screening should precede any treatment intervention.

3. A 3-year-old with a congenital heart defect has had a steady decrease in heart rate, now at 76 bpm from 110 bpm four hours ago. Which additional finding should be reported immediately to a healthcare provider?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 94%.
• B. Respiratory rate of 25 breaths/minute.
• C. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
• D. Blood pressure of 70/40.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A significant drop in heart rate and blood pressure should be reported immediately as it may indicate worsening of the congenital heart defect. The blood pressure of 70/40 is dangerously low and requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Oxygen saturation of 94% is within an acceptable range and does not indicate immediate danger. A respiratory rate of 25 breaths/minute is slightly elevated but not a critical finding. Urine output of 20 mL/hr is low but may not be the most concerning finding in this scenario compared to the drop in blood pressure.

4. The healthcare provider is evaluating diet teaching for a client who has nontropical sprue (celiac disease). Choosing which food indicates that the teaching has been effective?

• A. Creamed corn.
• B. Pancakes.
• C. Rye crackers.
• D. Cooked oatmeal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Creamed corn is a gluten-free food, making it a suitable option for clients with celiac disease. This choice indicates effective diet teaching as it aligns with the dietary restrictions necessary for managing the condition. Pancakes, rye crackers, and cooked oatmeal contain gluten, which is harmful to individuals with celiac disease. Therefore, they are not suitable choices and would not indicate effective teaching for a client with this condition.

5. During a well-baby check of a 7-month-old infant, the practical nurse notes an absence of babbling. Which focused assessment should the PN implement?

• A. Visual function.
• B. Auditory function.
• C. Cognitive function.
• D. Social development.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The absence of babbling in a 7-month-old infant is a concerning auditory development milestone. Babbling is an early stage of language development that involves making various sounds. A lack of babbling could indicate a hearing impairment or other auditory issues. Therefore, the practical nurse should focus on assessing the infant's auditory function to determine if further evaluation or intervention is necessary. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the absence of babbling specifically points towards a potential issue related to auditory function rather than visual, cognitive, or social development.

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