Nursing Elites

1. The mother of a 9-month-old who was diagnosed with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) yesterday calls the clinic to inquire if it will be all right to take her infant to the first birthday party of a friend's child the following day. What response should the nurse provide this mother?

• A. The child can be around other children but should wear a mask at all times.
• B. The child will no longer be contagious, no need to take any further precautions.
• C. Make sure there are no children under the age of 6 months around the infected child.
• D. Do not expose other children. RSV is very contagious even without direct oral contact.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is to advise the mother not to expose other children to the infected child. RSV is highly contagious, and transmission can occur even without direct oral contact. It is crucial to prevent the spread of the virus to protect other children from getting infected.

2. A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is learning to self-administer insulin. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Store the insulin in the freezer.
• B. Administer the insulin at the same site each time.
• C. Rotate injection sites within the same region.
• D. Shake the vial vigorously before drawing up the insulin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client learning to self-administer insulin is to rotate injection sites within the same region. This practice helps prevent lipodystrophy, which is a condition characterized by fat tissue changes due to repeated injections in the same spot, and also ensures consistent absorption of insulin throughout the body. Storing insulin in the freezer is incorrect as it can lead to denaturation of the insulin. Administering the insulin at the same site each time can cause lipodystrophy and inconsistent absorption. Shaking the vial vigorously before drawing up the insulin is also incorrect as it can lead to insulin degradation.

3. A 65-year-old white female with a history of arthritis, congestive heart failure, and osteoporosis complains of odynophagia for two weeks. A barium swallow shows a moderate-sized crater just above the gastroesophageal junction. What is the least likely contributor to this condition?

• A. NSAIDs
• B. Alendronate
• C. Iron sulfate
• D. Calcium channel blocker

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this case, the least likely contributor to the condition described is the calcium channel blocker. NSAIDs, alendronate, and iron sulfate have been associated with pill-induced esophagitis, which can present with symptoms like odynophagia and erosions or ulcers on imaging studies. Pill-induced esophagitis is often due to factors like inadequate water intake with the medication, being in a supine position, or underlying motility disorders. Discontinuation of the offending medication typically leads to rapid resolution of esophageal injury. Acid-suppressive therapy may be used to prevent reflux-related damage.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous (IV) metoprolol (Lopressor) to a client. The client's apical pulse is 58 beats/minute. What action should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Administer the medication as prescribed.
• B. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Give half the prescribed dose and recheck the pulse in 30 minutes.
• D. Administer the medication and then recheck the pulse in 30 minutes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, with the client's apical pulse being 58 beats/minute, holding the medication and notifying the healthcare provider is the correct action. A low pulse rate may indicate bradycardia and may necessitate dose adjustment or further evaluation by the healthcare provider to prevent potential complications.

5. A client who is receiving heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Increase the heparin infusion rate.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Apply pressure to the injection site.
• D. Administer protamine sulfate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds is elevated, indicating a risk of bleeding. The appropriate action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider. Increasing the heparin infusion rate can further elevate the aPTT, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Applying pressure to the injection site is not relevant in this situation. Administering protamine sulfate is used to reverse the effects of heparin in cases of overdose or bleeding, but it is not the initial action for an elevated aPTT.

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