Nursing Elites

1. A 13-year-old client with type 1 diabetes presents to the clinic with a blood glucose level of 400 mg/dL. The client reports feeling thirsty and having frequent urination. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer insulin as prescribed
• B. Encourage the client to drink water
• C. Check the client’s urine for ketones
• D. Reinforce the importance of diet and exercise

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with type 1 diabetes presenting with hyperglycemia (blood glucose level of 400 mg/dL) and symptoms of thirst and frequent urination, the priority action for the nurse is to administer insulin as prescribed. Insulin helps lower the blood glucose level and prevents complications like diabetic ketoacidosis. While encouraging hydration is essential, administering insulin is crucial to address the high blood glucose levels. Checking urine for ketones is important in diabetic management but is secondary to administering insulin in this scenario. Reinforcing diet and exercise importance is vital for diabetes management but not the priority in acute hyperglycemia.

2. A 6-year-old boy with bronchial asthma takes the beta-adrenergic agonist albuterol (Proventil). The child’s mother tells the nurse that she uses this medication to open her son’s airway when he is having trouble breathing. What is the nurse’s best response?

• A. Recommend that the mother bring the child in for immediate evaluation
• B. Advise the mother that overuse of the drug may cause chronic bronchitis
• C. Assure the mother that she is using the medication correctly
• D. Confirm that the medication helps to reduce airway inflammation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to assure the mother that she is using the medication correctly. Albuterol is a beta-adrenergic agonist that helps open the airways during an asthma attack. By reassuring the mother, the nurse reinforces the correct usage of the medication, which is crucial in managing the child's asthma symptoms effectively. Option A is incorrect because immediate evaluation may not be necessary if the child's symptoms are being managed effectively with albuterol. Option B is incorrect as chronic bronchitis is not typically associated with the overuse of albuterol. Option D is incorrect as albuterol primarily acts as a bronchodilator and does not directly reduce airway inflammation.

3. A child with Graves' disease who is taking propranolol (Inderal) is seen in the clinic. The nurse should monitor the child for which therapeutic response?

• A. Increased weight gain
• B. Decreased heart rate
• C. Reduced headaches
• D. Diminished fatigue

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Decreased heart rate.' Propranolol is a beta-blocker commonly used to manage symptoms of hyperthyroidism, including tachycardia. Monitoring for a decreased heart rate is important as it indicates the drug's therapeutic response in controlling the elevated heart rate associated with Graves' disease. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, reduced headaches, and diminished fatigue are not typical therapeutic responses to propranolol in the context of managing Graves' disease.

4. A 2-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine the pulse deficit.
• B. Administer the scheduled dose.
• C. Calculate the safe dose range.
• D. Review the serum digoxin level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario. The nurse obtained an apical heart rate of 128 bpm, which is within the expected range for a 2-year-old child. Therefore, there is no immediate concern to withhold the scheduled dose of digoxin. Determining the pulse deficit is not necessary as the heart rate is appropriate. Calculating the safe dose range is not needed as the current dose is within the therapeutic range. Reviewing the serum digoxin level may be indicated later for monitoring but is not urgent based on the heart rate assessment. Administering the scheduled dose of digoxin is the correct action at this time.

5. A 10-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. The nurse notes that the child has edema and elevated blood pressure. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer antihypertensive medication as prescribed
• B. Monitor the child’s urine output
• C. Elevate the child’s legs to reduce edema
• D. Restrict the child’s fluid intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child with acute glomerulonephritis presenting with edema and elevated blood pressure, the priority action for the nurse is to administer antihypertensive medication as prescribed. Managing blood pressure is essential to prevent further complications associated with the condition, such as worsening kidney function and cardiovascular strain. Monitoring urine output is important but not the priority over managing elevated blood pressure. Elevating the child's legs may help with edema but addressing the elevated blood pressure takes precedence. Fluid intake restriction may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the immediate priority when managing acute glomerulonephritis with edema and hypertension.

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