Nursing Elites

1. A 13-year-old client with type 1 diabetes presents to the clinic with a blood glucose level of 400 mg/dL. The client reports feeling thirsty and having frequent urination. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer insulin as prescribed
• B. Encourage the client to drink water
• C. Check the client’s urine for ketones
• D. Reinforce the importance of diet and exercise

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with type 1 diabetes presenting with hyperglycemia (blood glucose level of 400 mg/dL) and symptoms of thirst and frequent urination, the priority action for the nurse is to administer insulin as prescribed. Insulin helps lower the blood glucose level and prevents complications like diabetic ketoacidosis. While encouraging hydration is essential, administering insulin is crucial to address the high blood glucose levels. Checking urine for ketones is important in diabetic management but is secondary to administering insulin in this scenario. Reinforcing diet and exercise importance is vital for diabetes management but not the priority in acute hyperglycemia.

2. During a well-baby check of a 7-month-old infant, the practical nurse notes an absence of babbling. Which focused assessment should the PN implement?

• A. Visual function.
• B. Auditory function.
• C. Cognitive function.
• D. Social development.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The absence of babbling in a 7-month-old infant is a concerning auditory development milestone. Babbling is an early stage of language development that involves making various sounds. A lack of babbling could indicate a hearing impairment or other auditory issues. Therefore, the practical nurse should focus on assessing the infant's auditory function to determine if further evaluation or intervention is necessary. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the absence of babbling specifically points towards a potential issue related to auditory function rather than visual, cognitive, or social development.

3. The parents of a 3-year-old boy who has Duchenne muscular dystrophy ask, 'How can our son have this disease? We are wondering if we should have any more children.' What information should the nurse provide to parents?

• A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family
• B. The striated muscle groups of males can be impacted by a lack of the protein dystrophin in their mothers
• C. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated so muscle damage was incurred
• D. Birth trauma with a breech vaginal birth causes damage to the spinal cord, thus weakening the muscles

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder that primarily affects males. It is crucial for the nurse to explain to the parents that this condition follows an inheritance pattern where the gene mutation responsible for the disorder is located on the X chromosome. Males have only one X chromosome, so if they inherit the mutated gene, they will develop the disease. Females, on the other hand, have two X chromosomes, providing a backup copy that can compensate for the mutation. Understanding this inheritance pattern is essential for family planning decisions, as the risk of passing on the disorder to future children can be explained based on this genetic inheritance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the genetic basis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy or its inheritance pattern, which is crucial information for the parents in this scenario.

4. Following admission for cardiac catheterization, the nurse is providing discharge teaching to the parents of a 2-year-old toddler with tetralogy of Fallot. What instruction should the nurse give the parents if their child becomes pale, cool, and lethargic?

• A. Encourage oral electrolyte solution intake
• B. Assist the child to a recumbent position
• C. Contact their healthcare provider immediately
• D. Provide a quiet time by holding or rocking the toddler

Correct answer: C

Rationale: If a child with tetralogy of Fallot becomes pale, cool, and lethargic, these symptoms may indicate a hypoxic episode or worsening condition. It is crucial to contact the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and management to ensure the child's safety and well-being. Option A is incorrect because electrolyte solution intake is not the immediate action needed for these symptoms. Option B is incorrect as positioning alone may not address the underlying issue. Option D is incorrect as providing a quiet time is not appropriate if the child is experiencing concerning symptoms that require prompt medical attention.

5. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left-to-right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.

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