a 20 year old client has an infected leg wound from a motorcycle accident and the client has returned home from the hospital the client is to keep the
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Nutrition Practice Exam

1. A 20-year-old client has an infected leg wound from a motorcycle accident and has returned home from the hospital. The client is to keep the affected leg elevated and is on contact precautions. The client wants to know if visitors can come. The appropriate response from the home health nurse is that:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Visitors should wash their hands before and after touching the client.' When a client is on contact precautions, it is essential for visitors to practice good hand hygiene to prevent the spread of infection. While wearing a mask and a gown might be necessary for healthcare providers, it is not typically required for visitors. Option B is incorrect because there are indeed special requirements for visitors on contact precautions, including practicing good hand hygiene. Option D is incomplete and does not provide any guidance on infection prevention measures.

2. A client is diagnosed with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia. What type of isolation is most appropriate for this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Contact.' Contact precautions are necessary for clients with MRSA pneumonia to prevent the spread of the resistant bacteria. MRSA is primarily spread by direct contact, so using contact precautions, such as wearing gloves and gowns, is essential. Choice A, 'Reverse,' is not a type of isolation precaution. Choice B, 'Airborne,' is not the appropriate isolation for MRSA pneumonia, as MRSA is not transmitted through the airborne route. Choice C, 'Standard precautions,' are important for all clients, but for MRSA pneumonia specifically, contact precautions are more targeted and necessary.

3. A client is being maintained on heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis. The nurse must closely monitor which of the following laboratory values?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated PTT is the correct lab value to monitor for clients on heparin therapy. Activated PTT (partial thromboplastin time) helps assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy by measuring the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring activated PTT ensures that the client is within the therapeutic range of heparin to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications. Bleeding time (Choice A) and platelet count (Choice B) are not specific indicators of heparin therapy effectiveness. Clotting time (Choice D) is not as sensitive as activated PTT in monitoring heparin therapy.

4. Why is it important for the healthcare provider to monitor blood pressure in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because monitoring for orthostatic hypotension is crucial when clients are receiving antipsychotic drugs since it is a common side effect. Orthostatic hypotension can lead to symptoms like dizziness and falls, making it essential to monitor blood pressure regularly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because most antipsychotic drugs do not typically cause elevated blood pressure, monitoring blood pressure is not directly related to the amount of sodium in the diet, and blood pressure monitoring is not primarily used to determine the need for anti-parkinsonian drugs in clients receiving antipsychotic medications.

5. The nurse has been teaching a client with Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Shaking the NPH insulin bottle hard can cause air bubbles and affect dosing accuracy; it should be rolled gently instead.

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