Nursing Elites

1. A nurse checks a client who is on a volume-cycled ventilator. Which finding indicates that the client may need suctioning?

• A. drowsiness
• B. complaint of nausea
• C. pulse rate of 92
• D. restlessness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Restlessness is often a sign of respiratory distress or secretion build-up, indicating the need for suctioning. While drowsiness (choice A) can be a sign of hypoxia, it is not as immediate an indication for suctioning as restlessness. Complaint of nausea (choice B) and a pulse rate of 92 (choice C) are not directly related to the need for suctioning in a client on a volume-cycled ventilator.

2. The nurse is caring for a client in hypertensive crisis in an intensive care unit. The priority assessment in the first hour of care is

• A. Heart rate
• B. Pedal pulses
• C. Lung sounds
• D. Pupil responses

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing pupil responses is crucial in a client with hypertensive crisis to monitor for signs of increased intracranial pressure, which can indicate potential neurological complications. While heart rate, pedal pulses, and lung sounds are important assessments, they do not take precedence over neurological assessments in this critical situation.

3. To prevent unnecessary hypoxia during suctioning of a tracheostomy, what must the nurse do?

• A. Apply suction for no more than 10 seconds
• B. Maintain a sterile technique
• C. Lubricate 3 to 4 inches of the catheter tip
• D. Withdraw the catheter in a circular motion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To prevent unnecessary hypoxia during suctioning of a tracheostomy, the nurse must apply suction for no more than 10 seconds. Prolonged suctioning can lead to hypoxia by removing too much oxygen from the patient. Maintaining a sterile technique (choice B) is important to prevent infection but does not directly relate to preventing hypoxia. Lubricating the catheter tip (choice C) helps with the insertion process but does not specifically address hypoxia prevention. Withdrawing the catheter in a circular motion (choice D) is not a standard practice during tracheostomy suctioning and does not contribute to preventing hypoxia.

4. A client is being maintained on heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis. The nurse must closely monitor which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Bleeding time
• B. Platelet count
• C. Activated PTT
• D. Clotting time

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated PTT is the correct lab value to monitor for clients on heparin therapy. Activated PTT (partial thromboplastin time) helps assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy by measuring the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring activated PTT ensures that the client is within the therapeutic range of heparin to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications. Bleeding time (Choice A) and platelet count (Choice B) are not specific indicators of heparin therapy effectiveness. Clotting time (Choice D) is not as sensitive as activated PTT in monitoring heparin therapy.

5. The nurse is caring for a client receiving a blood transfusion who develops urticaria half an hour after the transfusion has begun. What is the first action the nurse should take?

• A. Stop the infusion
• B. Slow the rate of infusion
• C. Take vital signs and observe for further deterioration
• D. Administer Benadryl and continue the infusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a client developing urticaria during a blood transfusion, the immediate priority for the nurse is to stop the infusion. This action is crucial to prevent further administration of the allergen causing the reaction. Slowing the rate of infusion (Choice B) may not be sufficient to address the allergic response effectively. While monitoring vital signs (Choice C) is important, stopping the infusion takes precedence to prevent worsening of the reaction. Administering Benadryl (Choice D) should be considered after stopping the infusion, following the healthcare provider's orders, and assessing the client's condition.

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