Nursing Elites

1. A nurse checks a client who is on a volume-cycled ventilator. Which finding indicates that the client may need suctioning?

• A. drowsiness
• B. complaint of nausea
• C. pulse rate of 92
• D. restlessness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Restlessness is often a sign of respiratory distress or secretion build-up, indicating the need for suctioning. While drowsiness (choice A) can be a sign of hypoxia, it is not as immediate an indication for suctioning as restlessness. Complaint of nausea (choice B) and a pulse rate of 92 (choice C) are not directly related to the need for suctioning in a client on a volume-cycled ventilator.

2. A client receiving filgrastim (Neupogen) for neutropenia is learning about compromised host precautions. The selection of which lunch suggests the client has learned about necessary dietary changes?

• A. grilled chicken sandwich and skim milk
• B. roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans
• C. peanut butter sandwich, banana, and iced tea
• D. barbecue beef, baked beans, and cole slaw

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans are suitable choices for clients with neutropenia because they are considered safe options that help avoid potential sources of infection. Grilled chicken, peanut butter, and barbecue beef may carry a higher risk of bacterial contamination, which could be harmful to a client with compromised immunity.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing dyspnea. Which of these actions should the nurse perform first?

• A. Administer oxygen therapy
• B. Encourage the client to perform deep breathing exercises
• C. Raise the head of the bed
• D. Check the client's oxygen saturation level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's oxygen saturation level first. This action is crucial in assessing the severity of dyspnea and determining the necessity for oxygen therapy. Administering oxygen therapy without knowing the current oxygen saturation level can be inappropriate and potentially harmful. Encouraging deep breathing exercises and raising the head of the bed are important interventions, but assessing the oxygen saturation level takes precedence in managing dyspnea in a client with COPD.

4. A healthcare professional assesses a young adult in the emergency room following a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following neurological signs is of most concern?

• A. Flaccid paralysis
• B. Pupils fixed and dilated
• C. Diminished spinal reflexes
• D. Reduced sensory responses

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pupils fixed and dilated. Fixed and dilated pupils are a critical neurological sign that indicates severe neurological damage or brain herniation, posing a significant concern for the patient's condition. Flaccid paralysis (choice A) typically indicates lower motor neuron injury, while diminished spinal reflexes (choice C) and reduced sensory responses (choice D) may suggest various neurological issues but are not as acutely concerning as fixed and dilated pupils in this scenario.

5. Discharge instructions for a client taking alprazolam (Xanax) should include which of the following?

• A. Sedative hypnotics are effective analgesics
• B. Sudden cessation of alprazolam (Xanax) can cause rebound insomnia and nightmares
• C. Caffeine beverages can increase the effect of sedative hypnotics
• D. Avoidance of excessive exercise and high temperature is recommended

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alprazolam should not be stopped abruptly as it can cause rebound insomnia and nightmares; gradual tapering is necessary. Choice A is incorrect as sedative hypnotics are not primarily used as analgesics. Choice C is incorrect as caffeine can decrease the effects of sedative hypnotics rather than increase them. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to avoid excessive exercise or high temperature related to alprazolam use.

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