a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd is experiencing dyspnea which of these actions should the nurse perform first
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Nutrition Exam

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing dyspnea. Which of these actions should the nurse perform first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's oxygen saturation level first. This action is crucial in assessing the severity of dyspnea and determining the necessity for oxygen therapy. Administering oxygen therapy without knowing the current oxygen saturation level can be inappropriate and potentially harmful. Encouraging deep breathing exercises and raising the head of the bed are important interventions, but assessing the oxygen saturation level takes precedence in managing dyspnea in a client with COPD.

2. The client is receiving discharge teaching for heart failure. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choice D is the correct answer because stopping medications when feeling better can be harmful in heart failure. It is essential to complete the full course of medication as prescribed by the healthcare provider to effectively manage heart failure. Choices A, B, and C demonstrate good understanding and compliance with heart failure management strategies, such as monitoring weight, restricting sodium intake, and adhering to prescribed medications, respectively.

3. Which statement best describes the effects of immobility in children?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Immobility in children indeed has physical effects similar to those found in adults. However, it can also significantly impact their development and growth. Choice A is incorrect because immobility does not solely prevent language and fine motor development but affects various aspects. Choice C is incorrect as susceptibility to the effects of immobility may vary between children and adults depending on individual factors. Choice D is incorrect as not all children are likely to have prolonged immobility with subsequent complications.

4. A nurse is assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility. Which client is at highest risk for the development of decubitus ulcers?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A malnourished client on bed rest is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to a combination of factors such as poor nutritional status and immobility. Malnourished individuals have compromised skin integrity, making them more susceptible to pressure ulcers. Being on bed rest further exacerbates this risk as constant pressure on bony prominences can lead to tissue damage. Although the other choices may also be at risk for developing decubitus ulcers, the malnourished client on bed rest presents the highest risk due to the combination of malnutrition and immobility.

5. When another nurse enters the room in response to a call, after checking the client's pulse and respirations during CPR on an adult in cardiopulmonary arrest, what should be the function of the second nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to participate in compressions or breathing. This is essential to ensure continuous and effective CPR. Relieving the nurse performing CPR (Choice A) is not recommended as it can interrupt the life-saving procedure. Going to get the code cart (Choice B) may be necessary in certain situations but should not take precedence over providing immediate assistance in CPR. Validating the client's advanced directive (Choice D) is not the primary role in this scenario where urgent action is needed to support the client's circulation and breathing.

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