Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing dyspnea. Which of these actions should the nurse perform first?

• A. Administer oxygen therapy
• B. Encourage the client to perform deep breathing exercises
• C. Raise the head of the bed
• D. Check the client's oxygen saturation level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's oxygen saturation level first. This action is crucial in assessing the severity of dyspnea and determining the necessity for oxygen therapy. Administering oxygen therapy without knowing the current oxygen saturation level can be inappropriate and potentially harmful. Encouraging deep breathing exercises and raising the head of the bed are important interventions, but assessing the oxygen saturation level takes precedence in managing dyspnea in a client with COPD.

2. When another nurse enters the room in response to a call, after checking the client's pulse and respirations during CPR on an adult in cardiopulmonary arrest, what should be the function of the second nurse?

• A. Relieve the nurse performing CPR
• B. Go get the code cart
• C. Participate with the compressions or breathing
• D. Validate the client's advanced directive

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to participate in compressions or breathing. This is essential to ensure continuous and effective CPR. Relieving the nurse performing CPR (Choice A) is not recommended as it can interrupt the life-saving procedure. Going to get the code cart (Choice B) may be necessary in certain situations but should not take precedence over providing immediate assistance in CPR. Validating the client's advanced directive (Choice D) is not the primary role in this scenario where urgent action is needed to support the client's circulation and breathing.

3. A client is receiving teaching about a high-fiber diet to manage constipation. Which statement indicates the best choice for a high-fiber diet?

• A. Eating one medium apple is a good snack option.
• B. Selecting a ½ cup of sweet potatoes for starch is a great choice.
• C. Choosing a ½ cup of bran cereal for breakfast is ideal.
• D. Opting for 1 ounce of almonds when hungry midday is recommended.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because bran cereal is a high-fiber food that can effectively alleviate constipation by promoting regular bowel movements. Option A, an apple, while a healthy snack, may not provide as much fiber as bran cereal. Option B, sweet potatoes, are nutritious but may not be as high in fiber as bran cereal. Option D, almonds, are a good source of healthy fats and protein but do not provide as much fiber as bran cereal.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with liver cirrhosis. Which of these findings would indicate that the client is experiencing complications of the disease?

• A. Yellowing of the skin and eyes
• B. Presence of spider angiomas on the skin
• C. Ascites and peripheral edema
• D. Clay-colored stools and dark urine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clay-colored stools and dark urine are classic signs of liver dysfunction, indicating bile flow obstruction commonly seen in liver cirrhosis. This finding is a significant complication requiring immediate medical evaluation. Yellowing of the skin and eyes (jaundice) is a common symptom of liver dysfunction but is not specific to complications. Spider angiomas and ascites with peripheral edema are also associated with liver cirrhosis, but they are not indicative of immediate complications as clay-colored stools and dark urine are.

5. A client has been diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Which information is most important for the nurse to reinforce with the client?

• A. It is a condition in which one or more tumors, called gastrinomas, form in the pancreas or in the upper part of the small intestine (duodenum).
• B. It is critical to promptly report any findings of peptic ulcers to your health care provider.
• C. Treatment consists of medications to reduce acid and heal any peptic ulcers and, if possible, surgery to remove any tumors.
• D. The average age at diagnosis is 50 years, and peptic ulcers may occur in unusual areas of the stomach or intestine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prompt reporting of peptic ulcers is crucial in managing Zollinger-Ellison syndrome to prevent complications and guide treatment. While choices A, C, and D provide relevant information about the condition and its treatment, the most important aspect in the client's care is the prompt reporting of peptic ulcers. This is because untreated peptic ulcers in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome can lead to serious complications such as gastrointestinal bleeding or perforation. Therefore, ensuring timely communication with the healthcare provider is essential for effective management of the condition.

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