a client recovering from a stroke is demonstrating slurred speech what action should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client recovering from a stroke is demonstrating slurred speech. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for a client recovering from a stroke demonstrating slurred speech is to encourage the client to use communication aids, such as writing. This intervention can help the client effectively communicate while working on regaining speech abilities. Consulting the healthcare provider to order speech therapy (choice A) is a valid option, but immediate encouragement of using communication aids is beneficial. Administering aspirin (choice B) without healthcare provider orders is not recommended. Encouraging the client to eat soft foods (choice D) is important for preventing aspiration but doesn't directly address the communication issue.

2. A young male client with an above-knee amputation (AKA) reports that his 'right foot is aching.' What is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because gabapentin is prescribed to treat phantom limb pain, which is common in individuals with amputations. Option A is not the most important intervention at this time since the client is reporting physical pain, not emotional distress. Option C is not appropriate because the client is reporting aching in the foot, not the stump. Option D does not address the underlying issue of phantom limb pain that needs to be managed.

3. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) reports nausea and dizziness. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) reports symptoms like nausea and dizziness, the first action the nurse should take is to check the client's vital signs and blood pressure. This assessment helps determine the client's overall stability and can provide crucial information to guide further interventions. Checking the blood glucose level (Choice A) may be relevant but is not the priority in this situation. Decreasing the infusion rate of TPN (Choice C) may be necessary but should be based on assessment findings. Administering antiemetic medication (Choice D) should not be the initial action without first assessing the client's vital signs.

4. Prolonged exposure to high concentrations of supplemental oxygen over several days can cause which pathophysiological effect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Prolonged exposure to high oxygen concentrations can disrupt the production of surfactant in the lungs, leading to atelectasis and other lung complications. Surfactant is essential for maintaining lung compliance and preventing alveolar collapse. Reduced cardiac output (Choice A) is not directly associated with prolonged oxygen exposure. Hyperactivity of alveoli (Choice C) is not a recognized consequence of high oxygen levels. Increased oxygen carrying capacity (Choice D) is not a pathophysiological effect of prolonged high oxygen exposure.

5. The nursing student is discussing with a preceptor the delegation of tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which tasks, delegated to a UAP, indicates the student needs further teaching about the delegation process?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Caring for a client with discharge orders involves tasks that require critical thinking and clinical judgment, which are beyond the scope of a UAP. Delegating this task to a UAP can compromise patient safety and outcomes. The correct answer is C. Choices A, B, and D are appropriate tasks to delegate to a UAP based on their training and scope of practice. Assisting a client to ambulate, feeding a pediatric patient in traction, and collecting a sputum specimen are tasks that can be safely performed by a UAP under appropriate supervision.

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