HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice, fatigue, and a distended abdomen. Which laboratory result is most important for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Ammonia level
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Albumin level
- D. Hemoglobin level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, elevated ammonia levels can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, which is a serious complication. Monitoring ammonia levels is crucial to assess for changes in mental status and initiate treatment if needed. White blood cell count (choice B) is not the most important parameter to monitor in this scenario as it does not directly relate to the complications of cirrhosis. Albumin level (choice C) and hemoglobin level (choice D) are also important in cirrhosis, but in this case, monitoring ammonia level takes precedence due to its direct association with hepatic encephalopathy.
2. A 60-year-old male client had a hernia repair in an outpatient surgery clinic. He is awake and alert but has not been able to void since he returned from surgery 6 hours ago. He received 1000 mL of IV fluid. Which action would be most likely to help him void?
- A. Have him drink several glasses of water
- B. Crede the bladder from the bottom to the top
- C. Assist him to stand by the side of the bed to void
- D. Wait 2 hours and have him try to void again
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Assisting the client to stand by the side of the bed to void is the most appropriate action in this situation. Standing to void often helps relieve the bladder, especially after surgery. Option A, having him drink several glasses of water, may not be as effective as the client might already be adequately hydrated. Option B, Crede maneuver, is a technique for emptying the bladder by applying manual pressure and is not the first-line intervention for a client who cannot void post-surgery. Option D, waiting 2 hours before trying to void again, may delay necessary intervention if the client is experiencing urinary retention.
3. A woman who is breastfeeding calls her obstetrician’s office and reports increased anxiety since the vaginal delivery of her son three weeks ago. She stopped taking her antianxiety medications but is thinking of restarting them. What response should the nurse provide?
- A. Describe the potential transmission of drugs to the infant through breast milk.
- B. Encourage her to utilize stress-relieving alternatives, such as deep breathing.
- C. Explain that anxiety is a common reaction for mothers of 3-week-old infants.
- D. Inform her that some antianxiety medications are safe to take while breastfeeding.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because some antianxiety medications are considered safe during breastfeeding. The nurse should reassure the client and encourage her to discuss options with her healthcare provider to manage anxiety safely while continuing to breastfeed. Choice A is incorrect because it focuses on the transmission of drugs rather than providing guidance on safe medication use. Choice B, while promoting stress-relieving techniques, does not address the potential need for medication. Choice C is incorrect as it minimizes the woman's reported anxiety, which may require professional intervention.
4. A nurse is reviewing the medication list for a client with heart failure. Which medication should the nurse question?
- A. Furosemide
- B. Digoxin
- C. Ibuprofen
- D. Carvedilol
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ibuprofen. Ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), can cause fluid retention, which may worsen heart failure symptoms. It should be used with caution or avoided in clients with heart failure. Furosemide (choice A) is a diuretic commonly used in heart failure to reduce fluid overload. Digoxin (choice B) is a medication that helps the heart beat stronger and slower, often used in heart failure. Carvedilol (choice D) is a beta-blocker that is beneficial in heart failure management. Therefore, Ibuprofen is the medication that the nurse should question in this scenario.
5. The nurse is administering an intradermal injection for a tuberculosis skin test. Which technique should the nurse use?
- A. Use a 25-gauge needle at a 90-degree angle
- B. Use a 27-gauge needle at a 15-degree angle
- C. Use a 22-gauge needle at a 45-degree angle
- D. Use a 20-gauge needle at a 90-degree angle
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An intradermal injection for a tuberculosis skin test should be administered using a 27-gauge needle at a 15-degree angle. This technique ensures that the medication is delivered into the dermis layer of the skin. Choice A is incorrect because a 25-gauge needle is too large for an intradermal injection. Choice C is incorrect as a 22-gauge needle is also too large and the angle is too steep for an intradermal injection. Choice D is incorrect as a 20-gauge needle is too large for an intradermal injection, and a 90-degree angle would not deliver the medication accurately into the dermis.
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