Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing to administer an immunization to a 5-year-old child. The parent asks if the vaccine can be given in a different way because the child is afraid of needles. What is the nurse’s best response?

• A. We can apply a numbing cream before the injection
• B. There is no other way to administer this vaccine
• C. We can give the vaccine as a nasal spray
• D. We can skip the vaccine if the child is too afraid

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering the vaccine as a nasal spray provides an alternative method of delivery that avoids the use of needles, addressing the child's fear while ensuring immunization. Nasal sprays are effective for certain vaccines and can be a suitable option in this scenario. Choice A is not the best response as it only addresses pain management but does not eliminate the use of needles. Choice B is incorrect as there are alternative delivery methods like nasal sprays. Choice D is incorrect as skipping the vaccine would leave the child unprotected and is not a recommended course of action.

2. The child is 3 years old and is 2 hours postop from a cardiac catheterization via the right femoral artery. Which assessment finding indicates arterial obstruction?

• A. Blood pressure is decreasing, and the pulse is rapid and irregular.
• B. The right foot feels cool to the touch and appears pale and blanched.
• C. The pulse distal to the femoral artery is weaker in the left foot than the right foot.
• D. The pressure dressing at the right femoral area is damp and oozing blood.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A cool, pale, and blanched foot is indicative of arterial obstruction, leading to poor blood flow. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as tissue damage or necrosis. Monitoring for signs of arterial compromise, such as color changes, temperature, and capillary refill, is crucial in detecting and managing vascular complications post-cardiac catheterization. Choices A, C, and D do not directly indicate arterial obstruction. While a decreasing blood pressure and rapid, irregular pulse may suggest compromise, these findings are more nonspecific. A weaker pulse distal to the femoral artery indicates reduced perfusion but not necessarily arterial obstruction. Finally, a damp, oozing pressure dressing suggests a dressing issue rather than arterial obstruction.

3. What is the priority intervention for a 16-year-old client with a history of depression who is brought to the emergency department after taking an overdose of acetaminophen?

• A. Administer activated charcoal
• B. Place the client on continuous cardiac monitoring
• C. Prepare for gastric lavage
• D. Administer N-acetylcysteine as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority intervention for a client who has taken an acetaminophen overdose is to administer N-acetylcysteine promptly. N-acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose and helps prevent liver damage. Activated charcoal may be used in certain cases, but N-acetylcysteine takes precedence as it directly counteracts the toxic effects of acetaminophen. Continuous cardiac monitoring and gastric lavage are not the priority interventions for acetaminophen overdose. Administering N-acetylcysteine is crucial to prevent liver damage and address the overdose, making it the most urgent action in this scenario.

4. The nurse is caring for a 14-year-old adolescent who was admitted to the hospital after a suicide attempt. The adolescent’s mood appears stable, and the healthcare provider has recommended discharge. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Ensure that a safety plan is in place before discharge
• B. Provide education about medication adherence
• C. Encourage the adolescent to participate in group therapy
• D. Schedule a follow-up appointment with a mental health professional

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to ensure that a safety plan is in place before discharge. A safety plan is essential to assist the adolescent in managing future crises and decreasing the likelihood of another suicide attempt. It provides guidance on coping strategies and resources to help the adolescent stay safe in times of distress.

5. A 9-year-old child with a history of type 1 diabetes is brought to the clinic for a check-up. The nurse notes that the child's hemoglobin A1c is 8.5%. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Increase the child’s insulin dose
• B. Review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique
• C. Discuss the possibility of switching to oral hypoglycemics
• D. Schedule a follow-up appointment in three months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A hemoglobin A1c of 8.5% indicates suboptimal diabetes control. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique. This approach can help identify potential areas for improvement and optimize diabetes management, aiming to lower the hemoglobin A1c levels towards the target range. Increasing the child’s insulin dose (Choice A) without addressing dietary habits and administration technique may not lead to better control and can increase the risk of hypoglycemia. Switching to oral hypoglycemics (Choice C) is not appropriate for type 1 diabetes management. Scheduling a follow-up appointment in three months (Choice D) without intervening to improve diabetes control is not the best immediate action.

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