Nursing Elites

1. What is the recommended analgesia for preparing a school-age child for a lumbar puncture (LP)?

• A. Ondansetron (Zofran) 4 mg / 5 ml PO TID.
• B. Codeine 10 mg PO 30 minutes before the procedure.
• C. A transdermal fentanyl (Duragesic) patch immediately before the procedure.
• D. EMLA (eutectic mixtures of local anesthetics) 2.5 hours before the procedure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a lumbar puncture in a school-age child, EMLA cream should be applied 2.5 hours before the procedure. EMLA is commonly used to numb the skin, reducing pain and discomfort for the child during the procedure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because ondansetron is an antiemetic, codeine is an opioid analgesic that may not be suitable for children, and transdermal fentanyl is a strong opioid that is not typically used for local anesthesia in children undergoing lumbar puncture.

2. While assessing the vital signs of a 10-year-old who underwent a tonsillectomy this morning, the nurse observes the child swallowing every 2-3 minutes. Which assessment should the nurse implement?

• A. Inspect the posterior oropharynx
• B. Assess for teeth clenching or grinding
• C. Touch the tonsillar pillars to stimulate the gag reflex
• D. Ask the child to speak to evaluate a change in voice tone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Frequent swallowing post-tonsillectomy may indicate bleeding. Inspecting the posterior oropharynx is essential to assess for any signs of bleeding, such as fresh blood or clots, which may necessitate immediate intervention. Option B is incorrect as teeth clenching or grinding is not directly related to the observation of frequent swallowing in this scenario. Option C is incorrect because stimulating the gag reflex is not necessary at this point and may be uncomfortable for the child. Option D is incorrect as evaluating a change in voice tone is not relevant to the situation of observing frequent swallowing.

3. The healthcare provider plans to administer 10 mcg/kg of digoxin elixir as a loading dose to a child who weighs 55 pounds. Digoxin is available as an elixir of 50 mcg/ml. How many milliliters of the digoxin elixir should the healthcare provider administer to this child?

• A. 5 ml
• B. 10 ml
• C. 15 ml
• D. 20 ml

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the dose, first, convert the child's weight to kilograms by dividing 55 pounds by 2.2, which equals approximately 25 kg. Then, multiply the weight by the dose (10 mcg/kg) to get the total dose needed, which is 250 mcg. Next, divide the total dose by the concentration of the elixir (50 mcg/ml) to determine the volume needed, which is 5 ml. Therefore, the correct dose is 5 ml based on the child's weight and the concentration of the elixir.

4. A child who weighs 25 kg is receiving IV ampicillin at a dose of 300 mg/kg/24 hours in equally divided doses every 4 hours. How many milligrams should the nurse administer to the child for each dose?

• A. 1875 mg
• B. 625 mg
• C. 2000 mg
• D. 1500 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the correct dose for each administration, you first need to find the total daily dose: 300 mg/kg * 25 kg = 7500 mg/day. Since this total dose is divided into equally divided doses every 4 hours, there are 6 doses in 24 hours. Therefore, 7500 mg ÷ 6 doses = 1250 mg per dose. The nurse should administer 1250 mg every 4 hours, resulting in a total of 1875 mg for each dose in a 24-hour period. Choice A, 1875 mg, is the correct answer. Choice B, 625 mg, is incorrect as it does not consider the total daily dose and the frequency of administration. Choice C, 2000 mg, is incorrect as it is not the calculated dosage based on the given parameters. Choice D, 1500 mg, is also incorrect as it does not reflect the correct dosage calculation for each dose.

5. An 8-year-old male client with nephrotic syndrome is receiving salt-poor human albumin IV. Which findings indicate to the nurse that the child is manifesting a therapeutic response?

• A. Decreased urinary output
• B. Decreased periorbital edema
• C. Increased periods of rest
• D. Weight gain of 0.5 kg/day

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome treatment, decreased periorbital edema is a positive therapeutic response as it indicates a reduction in fluid retention. Periorbital edema is a common symptom of nephrotic syndrome due to fluid accumulation, so a decrease in this swelling signifies an improvement in the condition.

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