Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left-to-right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.

2. The infant scheduled for reduction of intussusception passes a soft-formed brown stool the day before the procedure. What intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Instruct the parents that the infant needs to be NPO.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the passage of brown stool.
• C. Obtain a stool specimen for laboratory analysis.
• D. Ask the parents about recent changes in the infant's diet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Notifying the healthcare provider is crucial when an infant scheduled for intussusception reduction passes a soft-formed brown stool as it may indicate spontaneous reduction of the intussusception. The healthcare provider needs to be informed to assess if the procedure is still necessary or if further evaluation is required. Instructing the parents that the infant needs to be NPO (nothing by mouth) is not the immediate action required in this situation. Obtaining a stool specimen for laboratory analysis is not necessary as the soft-formed brown stool is likely a result of the intussusception spontaneously reducing. Asking about recent changes in the infant's diet is not the most appropriate action when brown stool is passed before the procedure for intussusception reduction.

3. During a well-baby check of a 7-month-old infant, the practical nurse notes an absence of babbling. Which focused assessment should the PN implement?

• A. Visual function.
• B. Auditory function.
• C. Cognitive function.
• D. Social development.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The absence of babbling in a 7-month-old infant is a concerning auditory development milestone. Babbling is an early stage of language development that involves making various sounds. A lack of babbling could indicate a hearing impairment or other auditory issues. Therefore, the practical nurse should focus on assessing the infant's auditory function to determine if further evaluation or intervention is necessary. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the absence of babbling specifically points towards a potential issue related to auditory function rather than visual, cognitive, or social development.

4. The caregiver is caring for a 10-year-old child with a history of frequent ear infections. The parents are concerned about their child’s hearing and speech development. What is the caregiver’s best response?

• A. Let’s schedule a hearing test and refer to a speech therapist if needed
• B. Most children outgrow ear infections and speech delays
• C. There is no need to worry unless the infections persist into adolescence
• D. Your child’s hearing and speech should be normal by now

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The appropriate response for the caregiver is to address the parents' concerns by suggesting scheduling a hearing test and potentially referring the child to a speech therapist if necessary. This proactive approach can help evaluate and support the child's hearing and speech development effectively. Choice B is incorrect as assuming that most children outgrow ear infections and speech delays may overlook potential issues that need intervention. Choice C is wrong because waiting until adolescence to address concerns may lead to missed opportunities for early intervention. Choice D is incorrect as it dismisses the parents' valid concerns without offering a solution or further evaluation.

5. What should the nurse do first for a 6-year-old with asthma showing a prolonged expiratory phase, wheezing, and 35% of personal best peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR)?

• A. Administer a prescribed bronchodilator.
• B. Encourage the child to cough and take deep breaths.
• C. Report the findings to the healthcare provider.
• D. Identify the triggers that precipitated this attack.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the priority action in managing an acute asthma exacerbation in a child. Bronchodilators help to relax the muscles around the airways, opening them up and improving breathing. This intervention aims to address the immediate breathing difficulty and should be done promptly to provide relief for the child. Encouraging coughing and deep breaths (choice B) may worsen the child's condition by further constricting the airways. Reporting findings to the healthcare provider (choice C) is important but not the immediate priority in this acute situation. Identifying triggers (choice D) is crucial for long-term asthma management but is not the first step when managing an acute exacerbation.

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