the parents of a 3 year old boy who has duchenne muscular dystrophy ask how can our son have this disease we are wondering if we should have any more
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Pediatric HESI

1. What information should the nurse provide to parents of a 3-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy who inquire about the disease and future children?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder caused by mutations in the DMD gene on the X chromosome. This disorder primarily affects males because they have one X chromosome, inherited from their mothers, who may be carriers of the mutated gene. Females have two X chromosomes, providing a protective effect as the normal gene on one X chromosome can compensate for the mutated gene on the other. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the parents that Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which is why their son has the disease and why there is a risk of passing it on to future sons. Choice B is incorrect as it inaccurately implies that the lack of dystrophin in mothers impacts their sons' muscle groups. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests a viral infection caused the muscle damage, which is not the case with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Choice D is incorrect as it attributes the muscle weakness to birth trauma instead of the genetic nature of the disorder.

2. What intervention should the nurse implement first for a male toddler brought to the emergency center approximately three hours after swallowing tablets from his grandmother's bottle of digoxin (Lanoxin)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering activated charcoal is the priority intervention as it binds with digoxin, preventing further absorption in the gastrointestinal tract. This helps reduce the amount of digoxin available for systemic circulation and minimizes its toxic effects. Gastric lavage is no longer recommended due to potential complications and lack of evidence of efficacy. Obtaining an electrocardiogram may help assess the effects of digoxin toxicity, but it is not the initial priority. IV digoxin immune fab (Digibind) is used in severe cases of digoxin toxicity but is not the first-line intervention.

3. A mother brings her 2-year-old son to the clinic because he has been crying and pulling on his earlobe for the past 12 hours. The child’s oral temperature is 101.2°F. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child with ear pain and fever, asking about a runny nose is important to assess if the ear pain is associated with a respiratory infection, such as otitis media. This information can guide further assessment and treatment decisions. Choice B is incorrect because cleansing purulent exudate should be done by a healthcare provider, not the nurse. Choice C is incorrect as topical antibiotics should only be applied under healthcare provider's orders. Choice D is not the priority at this moment, as the immediate concern is assessing the association between the ear pain and a possible respiratory infection.

4. A 2-year-old is admitted to the hospital with possible encephalitis, and a lumbar puncture is scheduled. Which information should the nurse provide this child concerning the procedure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Children, especially young ones, benefit from knowing what position they will be in during a procedure as it helps them understand and feel more in control. Describing the side-lying, knees-to-chest position can reduce anxiety and promote cooperation during the lumbar puncture. Choice B is incorrect because the question is about preparing the child for the procedure, not about pre-procedure fasting requirements. Choice C is incorrect because there may be restrictions on activity after the procedure. Choice D is incorrect because mentioning loud clicking noises may increase the child's anxiety and fear.

5. After reinforcing information on treating a sprained ankle, what statement by the adolescent indicates to the practical nurse that further instruction is needed?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Applying warm compresses to a sprained ankle within the first 24 hours is incorrect as it can increase swelling and inflammation. Instead, cold compresses are recommended to help reduce swelling and pain. Option A, keeping the leg elevated, helps in reducing swelling. Option B, wrapping the ankle in an elastic bandage, provides support. Option D, using an ice pack in intervals, is effective in reducing swelling and pain. Therefore, the statement about applying warm compresses indicates the need for further instruction.

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