a 16 year old with acute myelocytic leukemia is receiving chemotherapy ct via an implanted medication port at the out patient oncology clinic what act
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Pediatric HESI

1. What action should the nurse implement when the infusion of chemotherapy via an implanted medication port is complete for a 16-year-old with acute myelocytic leukemia at the outpatient oncology clinic?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement when the chemotherapy infusion is complete is to flush the mediport with saline and heparin solution. This process helps prevent clotting and ensures the patency of the port, which is essential for future medication administrations and blood draws. Administering Zofran (Choice A) is not necessary after completing the chemotherapy infusion. Obtaining blood samples (Choice B) for RBCs, WBCs, and platelets is important but not the immediate action after completing the infusion. Initiating an infusion of normal saline (Choice D) is not required unless there is a specific indication for it.

2. The mother calls the clinic and tells the practical nurse (PN) that her child cannot swallow a prescribed tablet that was dispensed by the local pharmacy as a whole tablet. How should the PN respond?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a child is unable to swallow a tablet, the appropriate response is to consider if a liquid form of the medication is available. This is a safer and more effective alternative than forcing the child to swallow or chew the tablet. Contacting the pharmacist for a prescription change can provide a suitable solution that ensures the child receives the medication in a more manageable form. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because crushing the tablet and mixing it with food may alter the medication's effectiveness or taste, forcing the child to swallow or holding her nose closed can be distressing and ineffective, and advising the child to chew the tablet is not recommended as an alternative to swallowing it.

3. The healthcare provider plans to screen only the highest risk children for scoliosis. Which group of children should the healthcare provider screen first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: The healthcare provider plans to screen only the highest risk children for scoliosis. Which group of children should the healthcare provider screen first? Girls between ages 10 and 14 are at the highest risk for scoliosis and should be screened first as they have a higher incidence of developing scoliosis during their adolescent growth spurt. Early detection and intervention can help prevent further complications associated with scoliosis. Boys between ages 10 and 14 (choice B) are not at the highest risk compared to girls in the same age group. Boys and girls between 12 and 14 (choice C) are at a lower risk compared to girls between ages 10 and 14. Boys and girls between 8 and 12 (choice D) are at a lower risk group compared to girls between ages 10 and 14.

4. The practical nurse is providing care for a toddler who has just returned from surgery for a tonsillectomy. Which intervention is a priority in the immediate postoperative period?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring for frequent swallowing is a priority intervention in the immediate postoperative period after a tonsillectomy. Frequent swallowing may indicate bleeding from the surgical site, which requires immediate attention to prevent complications such as hemorrhage. Offering clear fluids frequently may not be appropriate immediately after surgery. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing may increase the risk of bleeding. Applying a warm compress to the throat area is not recommended as it can increase blood flow to the surgical site, potentially causing bleeding.

5. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.

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