a client with heart failure has a prescription for digoxin the nurse is aware that sufficient potassium should be included in the diet because hypokal
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Nutrition Exam

1. A client with heart failure has a prescription for digoxin. The nurse is aware that sufficient potassium should be included in the diet because hypokalemia in combination with this medication:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia increases the risk of dysrhythmias when taking digoxin, making potassium intake crucial. Digoxin toxicity is more likely in patients with low potassium levels, leading to an increased risk of dysrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypokalemia in combination with digoxin is primarily associated with dysrhythmias rather than oliguria, irritability, anxiety, or alteration of consciousness.

2. In a client with chronic kidney disease having a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L, which assessment is the most critical for the nurse to perform?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Assessing cardiac status is crucial in hyperkalemia as high potassium levels can result in life-threatening arrhythmias. Monitoring the heart rhythm and ECG findings is essential to prevent cardiac complications. Neurological status, respiratory status, and gastrointestinal status are important assessments too, but in the context of hyperkalemia, cardiac status takes precedence due to the immediate risk of cardiac arrhythmias.

3. A client is receiving intravenous antibiotics for the treatment of a severe infection. Which of these assessments is a priority for the nurse to perform?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is receiving intravenous antibiotics, checking the IV site for signs of phlebitis is a priority assessment for the nurse. Phlebitis is an inflammation of the vein, which can lead to serious complications such as infection and thrombosis. Monitoring the IV site helps prevent these complications and ensures the safe delivery of antibiotics. While monitoring the client's temperature, pain level, and respiratory status are important assessments, they are not the priority in this scenario where IV antibiotic administration requires close monitoring for complications like phlebitis.

4. Which of these clients with associated lab reports is a priority for the nurse to report to the public health department within the next 24 hours?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a positive acid-fast bacillus smear in an elderly factory worker suggests tuberculosis, a serious communicable disease that must be reported promptly to the public health department to prevent its spread. Choice A is incorrect as Shigella is an important pathogen, but it does not require immediate public health reporting. Choice C is incorrect because Pneumocystis carinii is an opportunistic pathogen and does not require urgent public health reporting. Choice D is incorrect as varicella-zoster virus causes chickenpox and shingles, both of which are not reportable diseases to the public health department.

5. For a client with chronic kidney disease having a hemoglobin level of 8.0 g/dL, which intervention should the nurse perform first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering erythropoietin is the priority intervention for a client with chronic kidney disease and a low hemoglobin level. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production, helping to manage anemia in these clients. Monitoring blood pressure, oxygen saturation level, and assessing for signs of fatigue are important aspects of care but addressing the anemia by administering erythropoietin takes precedence to improve oxygen-carrying capacity and overall well-being.

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