HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. After administering a proton pump inhibitor, which action should the nurse take to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Monitor gastrointestinal pain
- B. Ask the client about pain levels
- C. Check the client's vital signs
- D. Assess for signs of bleeding
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client about pain levels. Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) work by reducing stomach acid to alleviate gastrointestinal pain. By inquiring about the client's pain experience, the nurse can directly assess the effectiveness of the medication. Monitoring bowel movements (Choice A) is not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of a PPI. Checking vital signs (Choice C) may not reflect the medication's effectiveness in reducing stomach acid. Assessing for signs of bleeding (Choice D) is important but not the most direct way to evaluate the effectiveness of a PPI.
2. A client presents to the clinic with a large abscess on the right thigh. The healthcare provider incises and drains the abscess. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client upon discharge?
- A. Avoid showering until the wound is completely closed
- B. Perform daily wound care and dressing changes
- C. Apply heat to the wound for 15 minutes twice a day
- D. Take the prescribed antibiotic until the wound is fully healed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After incision and drainage of an abscess, it is crucial to perform daily wound care and dressing changes to prevent infection and promote healing. Avoiding showering until the wound is completely closed (choice A) may not be practical or necessary. Applying heat to the wound (choice C) can increase the risk of infection and delay healing. While taking the prescribed antibiotic (choice D) is important, wound care and dressing changes are more directly related to promoting healing and preventing complications.
3. A client with a recent myocardial infarction is prescribed a beta-blocker. What side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Monitor the client for bradycardia.
- B. Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypotension.
- C. Monitor the client for signs of hyperglycemia.
- D. Monitor for signs of fluid retention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypotension.' Beta-blockers can lead to decreased heart rate, but bradycardia is not the primary side effect to monitor. Monitoring for bradycardia is more relevant when administering medications like digoxin. Hyperglycemia is associated with medications like corticosteroids, not beta-blockers. Fluid retention is a side effect seen with medications like corticosteroids or calcium channel blockers, not beta-blockers. Therefore, in a client taking a beta-blocker after a myocardial infarction, monitoring for hypotension is crucial due to the medication's mechanism of action.
4. A client reports dizziness when standing up quickly. What advice should the nurse give?
- A. Encourage the client to drink more fluids.
- B. Change positions slowly to prevent dizziness.
- C. Report the symptom to the healthcare provider immediately.
- D. Limit physical activity to avoid triggering dizziness.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct advice for a client experiencing dizziness when standing up quickly is to change positions slowly to prevent dizziness. This symptom is suggestive of postural hypotension, where a sudden change in position can lead to a drop in blood pressure, causing dizziness. Encouraging the client to drink more fluids (Choice A) may be beneficial for other conditions but is not directly related to the prevention of dizziness in this case. Reporting the symptom to the healthcare provider immediately (Choice C) is important if the dizziness is persistent or severe, but the immediate action to prevent it is to change positions slowly. Limiting physical activity (Choice D) may not necessarily address the underlying cause of dizziness in this context.
5. A client with chronic renal failure has a potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer a potassium supplement.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
- C. Administer calcium gluconate.
- D. Restrict the client's potassium intake.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. The correct priority action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. Hyperkalemia requires prompt intervention to lower potassium levels and prevent complications. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice A) would worsen the condition. Administering calcium gluconate (Choice C) is a treatment option but is not the nurse's priority action. Restricting the client's potassium intake (Choice D) may be necessary but is not the immediate priority when facing a critical potassium level.
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