after administering a proton pump inhibitor which action should the nurse take to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. After administering a proton pump inhibitor, which action should the nurse take to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client about pain levels. Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) work by reducing stomach acid to alleviate gastrointestinal pain. By inquiring about the client's pain experience, the nurse can directly assess the effectiveness of the medication. Monitoring bowel movements (Choice A) is not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of a PPI. Checking vital signs (Choice C) may not reflect the medication's effectiveness in reducing stomach acid. Assessing for signs of bleeding (Choice D) is important but not the most direct way to evaluate the effectiveness of a PPI.

2. The nurse is teaching a client with asthma to use a peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) meter to manage asthma at home. The nurse knows the client understands the proper use of the meter when the client:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Records the highest of three readings.' When using a peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) meter, the client should record the highest of three readings to ensure an accurate measurement of their peak expiratory flow rate. Inhaling rapidly, using the meter after taking a bronchodilator, or blowing out forcefully into the meter after a deep breath are not correct techniques for using a PEFR meter and may lead to inaccurate results.

3. The nurse is providing care for a client with heart failure who is prescribed furosemide. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Potassium level. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. While calcium, sodium, and magnesium levels are important in various conditions and treatments, they are not the primary electrolyte affected by furosemide.

4. A client with tuberculosis is prescribed rifampin. What side effect should the nurse inform the client about?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rifampin can cause red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine, saliva, and tears. This is a harmless side effect, but clients should be informed beforehand to prevent alarm. Choice A is incorrect as orange-colored urine is not a sign of kidney dysfunction related to rifampin. Choice C is incorrect because rifampin is more commonly associated with liver toxicity rather than kidney dysfunction. Choice D is incorrect as vision changes are not a typical side effect of rifampin.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing hyperglycemia. What laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate long-term glucose control?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C). Glycosylated hemoglobin reflects long-term glucose control over the past three months. Monitoring blood glucose levels provides information on the current glucose status and immediate control, but it does not give a comprehensive view of long-term control. Urine output and serum ketone levels are important indicators for other aspects of diabetes management, such as hydration status and ketone production during hyperglycemic episodes, but they do not directly reflect long-term glucose control.

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