Nursing Elites

1. After administering a proton pump inhibitor, which action should the nurse take to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Monitor gastrointestinal pain
• B. Ask the client about pain levels
• C. Check the client's vital signs
• D. Assess for signs of bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client about pain levels. Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) work by reducing stomach acid to alleviate gastrointestinal pain. By inquiring about the client's pain experience, the nurse can directly assess the effectiveness of the medication. Monitoring bowel movements (Choice A) is not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of a PPI. Checking vital signs (Choice C) may not reflect the medication's effectiveness in reducing stomach acid. Assessing for signs of bleeding (Choice D) is important but not the most direct way to evaluate the effectiveness of a PPI.

2. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
• B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
• C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
• D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.

3. A nurse assesses a young adult in the emergency room following a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following neurological signs is of most concern?

• A. Flaccid paralysis
• B. Pupils fixed and dilated
• C. Diminished spinal reflexes
• D. Reduced sensory responses

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fixed, dilated pupils are a sign of increased intracranial pressure or brain injury, indicating a potentially serious neurological condition. Flaccid paralysis, although concerning, may not always indicate immediate life-threatening issues. Diminished spinal reflexes and reduced sensory responses are important neurological assessments but are not as acutely concerning as fixed, dilated pupils in this context.

4. A client with rheumatoid arthritis has just been prescribed methotrexate. What teaching should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Report any signs of infection, such as a sore throat.
• C. Take folic acid supplements to prevent anemia.
• D. Use sunscreen to prevent photosensitivity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Use sunscreen to prevent photosensitivity.' Methotrexate increases photosensitivity, so clients should be advised to use sunscreen to protect their skin from sun exposure. Choice A is incorrect because methotrexate is usually taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Choice B may be important but is not specific to methotrexate therapy. Choice C is also important, but the primary reason for folic acid supplementation with methotrexate is to reduce the risk of certain side effects like anemia rather than preventing anemia itself.

5. The nurse is providing care for a client with schizophrenia who receives haloperidol decanoate 75 mg IM every 4 weeks. The client begins developing puckering and smacking of the lips and facial grimacing. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Discontinue the medication immediately
• B. Increase the dose of haloperidol
• C. Complete the abnormal involuntary movement scale (AIMS)
• D. Monitor the client for signs of agitation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: These symptoms are characteristic of tardive dyskinesia, a side effect of long-term antipsychotic use. The nurse should assess the severity of these movements using the AIMS scale and report to the healthcare provider for further management. Discontinuing the medication abruptly (Choice A) can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition. Increasing the dose of haloperidol (Choice B) can exacerbate the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. Monitoring for signs of agitation (Choice D) is important but does not address the specific side effect described.

Similar Questions