Nursing Elites

1. After administering a proton pump inhibitor, which action should the nurse take to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Monitor gastrointestinal pain
• B. Ask the client about pain levels
• C. Check the client's vital signs
• D. Assess for signs of bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client about pain levels. Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) work by reducing stomach acid to alleviate gastrointestinal pain. By inquiring about the client's pain experience, the nurse can directly assess the effectiveness of the medication. Monitoring bowel movements (Choice A) is not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of a PPI. Checking vital signs (Choice C) may not reflect the medication's effectiveness in reducing stomach acid. Assessing for signs of bleeding (Choice D) is important but not the most direct way to evaluate the effectiveness of a PPI.

2. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is experiencing chest pain. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
• B. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram
• C. Call the healthcare provider
• D. Check the client's oxygen saturation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer sublingual nitroglycerin. Sublingual nitroglycerin is the first-line treatment for chest pain related to coronary artery disease. It helps dilate the coronary arteries and improve blood flow to the heart, providing immediate relief from ischemia. Administering nitroglycerin promptly can help alleviate the chest pain and prevent further complications. Obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram (Choice B) is important but should not delay the administration of nitroglycerin. Calling the healthcare provider (Choice C) can be done after initiating immediate treatment. Checking the client's oxygen saturation (Choice D) is relevant but not the first action to take in this scenario.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing increased shortness of breath and fatigue. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator as prescribed.
• B. Check the client's oxygen saturation.
• C. Reposition the client to a high Fowler's position.
• D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for a client with COPD experiencing increased shortness of breath and fatigue is to check the client's oxygen saturation. This assessment helps the nurse evaluate the client's respiratory status promptly. Administering a bronchodilator (Choice A) may be necessary but should come after assessing the oxygen saturation. Repositioning the client to a high Fowler's position (Choice C) can help improve breathing but should not precede oxygen saturation assessment. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice D) may be needed based on the oxygen saturation results, but assessing it first is crucial.

4. A client with pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital. Which intervention has the highest priority?

• A. Monitor blood pressure frequently
• B. Start intravenous fluids at a fast rate
• C. Administer pain medication to reduce discomfort
• D. Give antihypertensive medications as prescribed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Start intravenous fluids at a fast rate. In a client with pheochromocytoma, the highest priority intervention is to ensure adequate intravascular volume before initiating any other treatment. This helps prevent a sudden drop in blood pressure that can occur due to the release of catecholamines during tumor manipulation. While monitoring blood pressure frequently is essential, ensuring adequate intravascular volume takes precedence. Administering pain medication and antihypertensive medications are important but are not the highest priority in the initial management of pheochromocytoma.

5. A client with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion and unsteady gait. The nurse suspects Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Thiamine supplementation
• B. Folic acid replacement
• C. Intravenous glucose
• D. Magnesium sulfate administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological condition commonly caused by a deficiency in thiamine, often seen in clients with chronic alcohol abuse. Thiamine supplementation is the primary treatment to prevent further neurological damage. Folic acid replacement (choice B) is not the correct treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy. Intravenous glucose (choice C) may be necessary in some cases of Wernicke's encephalopathy, but thiamine supplementation takes precedence. Magnesium sulfate administration (choice D) is not indicated as the primary treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy.

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