Nursing Elites

1. After administering a proton pump inhibitor, which action should the nurse take to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Monitor gastrointestinal pain
• B. Ask the client about pain levels
• C. Check the client's vital signs
• D. Assess for signs of bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client about pain levels. Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) work by reducing stomach acid to alleviate gastrointestinal pain. By inquiring about the client's pain experience, the nurse can directly assess the effectiveness of the medication. Monitoring bowel movements (Choice A) is not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of a PPI. Checking vital signs (Choice C) may not reflect the medication's effectiveness in reducing stomach acid. Assessing for signs of bleeding (Choice D) is important but not the most direct way to evaluate the effectiveness of a PPI.

2. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) reports frequent heartburn. What dietary modification should the nurse recommend?

• A. Avoid eating large meals late at night.
• B. Eat a high-fat diet to buffer stomach acid.
• C. Reduce fluid intake to prevent acid reflux.
• D. Consume spicy foods to neutralize stomach acid.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to recommend avoiding eating large meals late at night. This dietary modification can help reduce the risk of acid reflux, which can exacerbate GERD symptoms. Consuming smaller, more frequent meals is generally recommended to minimize pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter. Choice B is incorrect because a high-fat diet can worsen GERD symptoms by delaying stomach emptying. Choice C is incorrect because reducing fluid intake can lead to dehydration and will not prevent acid reflux. Choice D is incorrect because spicy foods can actually trigger or worsen acid reflux symptoms in individuals with GERD.

3. When assessing a recently delivered multigravida client, the nurse finds that her vaginal bleeding is more than expected. Which factor in this client's history is related to this finding?

• A. The client delivered a large baby
• B. She is a gravida 6, para 5
• C. The client had a cesarean delivery
• D. The client had a prolonged labor

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with a higher gravida and para count is at greater risk for uterine atony, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. The uterus may be less effective at contracting after multiple pregnancies, causing increased vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because delivering a large baby, having a cesarean delivery, or experiencing prolonged labor do not directly correlate with an increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage in a multigravida client as compared to the gravida and para count.

4. A client with asthma is experiencing wheezing. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator immediately.
• B. Increase the client's oxygen flow rate.
• C. Perform a chest x-ray to assess lung function.
• D. Place the client in a high Fowler’s position.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer a bronchodilator immediately. Wheezing in a client with asthma indicates bronchoconstriction, which can compromise airflow. Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention as it helps to open the airways, relieve bronchoconstriction, and improve breathing. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (choice B) may be necessary but is not the priority when the airways are constricted. Performing a chest x-ray (choice C) is not the immediate action needed in this situation. Placing the client in a high Fowler's position (choice D) may provide some relief, but administering a bronchodilator to address the bronchoconstriction is the priority intervention.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with a history of schizophrenia who reports feeling sedated after starting a new antipsychotic medication. Which intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Reassure the client that sedation will subside with continued use
• B. Instruct the client to take the medication at bedtime
• C. Teach the client to take the medication with food
• D. Consult the healthcare provider to reduce the dosage

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Instructing the client to take the medication at bedtime is the most appropriate intervention. Taking antipsychotic medications at bedtime can help reduce the impact of sedation on the client's daily activities. This approach allows the client to sleep through the sedative effects. Choice A is incorrect because just reassuring the client may not address the immediate issue of sedation. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with food does not directly address the sedation concern. Choice D is not the first-line intervention; adjusting the dosage should be done by the healthcare provider after assessing the client's response to the medication.

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