Nursing Elites

1. The nurse observes that a client’s wrist restraint is secured to the side rail of the bed. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Ensure that the restraint is snug against the client’s wrist.
• B. Reposition the restraint tie onto the bedframe.
• C. Double knot the restraint to ensure safety.
• D. Leave the restraint in place and notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to reposition the restraint tie onto the bedframe. Restraints should always be secured to the bedframe, not the side rails, to prevent injury to the client in case the bed is adjusted. Choice A is incorrect because the issue is with the attachment point, not the snugness of the restraint. Choice C is incorrect as double knotting the restraint does not address the incorrect attachment point. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should not leave the restraint in the wrong position; instead, it should be moved to the correct location on the bedframe.

2. A client is newly diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer. What information should the nurse provide during medication teaching?

• A. Take antacids regularly to manage symptoms.
• B. Avoid spicy foods and alcohol.
• C. Ensure proper administration of antibiotics.
• D. Stop all food intake until symptoms subside.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with duodenal ulcers should avoid spicy foods and alcohol as they can exacerbate symptoms and delay healing. Choice A is incorrect because while antacids may help with symptoms, they are not the primary focus of medication teaching for duodenal ulcers. Choice C is not directly related to medication teaching for duodenal ulcers unless antibiotics are specifically prescribed. Choice D is incorrect as stopping all food intake is not recommended and can lead to other complications.

3. A client receiving lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy needs evaluation. Which assessment should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Percussion of the abdomen.
• B. Blood glucose level.
• C. Serum electrolytes.
• D. Level of consciousness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Level of consciousness. When managing hepatic encephalopathy with lactulose, monitoring the client's level of consciousness is crucial as it is a key indicator of the therapeutic response to lactulose in reducing ammonia levels. Changes in consciousness can reflect the effectiveness of treatment and the progression of hepatic encephalopathy. Option A, percussion of the abdomen, is not directly related to evaluating the response to lactulose. Option B, blood glucose level, is important but not the priority in this context. Option C, serum electrolytes, while significant in liver disease, do not directly assess the impact of lactulose therapy on hepatic encephalopathy.

4. What symptoms suggest the dosage of levothyroxine sodium is too high in a 26-year-old client with simple goiter?

• A. Bradycardia and constipation.
• B. Palpitations and shortness of breath.
• C. Lethargy and lack of appetite.
• D. Muscle cramps and dry skin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Palpitations and shortness of breath. These symptoms suggest excessive thyroid hormone levels, indicating that the levothyroxine dose is too high. Bradycardia and constipation (choice A) are more indicative of hypothyroidism, which occurs when thyroid hormone levels are low. Lethargy and lack of appetite (choice C) are also common symptoms of hypothyroidism. Muscle cramps and dry skin (choice D) can be associated with various conditions but are not specific to a high dosage of levothyroxine.

5. A client is scheduled for surgery in the morning and is NPO. Which statement indicates that the client understands the reason for being NPO?

• A. Being NPO helps reduce the risk of nausea.
• B. I should not eat or drink anything to prevent complications during surgery.
• C. NPO reduces the risk of aspiration during surgery.
• D. NPO helps ensure the stomach is empty during surgery.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'NPO reduces the risk of aspiration during surgery.' When a client is NPO (nothing by mouth) before surgery, it is to prevent aspiration, which can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia. Choice A is incorrect because being NPO is more about preventing aspiration than nausea. Choice B is a general statement without specifying the reason for being NPO. Choice D is partially correct but does not emphasize the crucial aspect of preventing aspiration, which is the primary reason for fasting before surgery.

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