Nursing Elites

1. The nurse observes that a client’s wrist restraint is secured to the side rail of the bed. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Ensure that the restraint is snug against the client’s wrist.
• B. Reposition the restraint tie onto the bedframe.
• C. Double knot the restraint to ensure safety.
• D. Leave the restraint in place and notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to reposition the restraint tie onto the bedframe. Restraints should always be secured to the bedframe, not the side rails, to prevent injury to the client in case the bed is adjusted. Choice A is incorrect because the issue is with the attachment point, not the snugness of the restraint. Choice C is incorrect as double knotting the restraint does not address the incorrect attachment point. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should not leave the restraint in the wrong position; instead, it should be moved to the correct location on the bedframe.

2. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. What assessment finding indicates the medication is effective?

• A. Increased urine output and weight loss.
• B. Increased heart rate and blood pressure.
• C. Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.
• D. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.' In a client with heart failure, furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid overload. Therefore, a decrease in edema (swelling due to fluid retention) and improved peripheral pulses (indicating better circulation) are signs that the medication is effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output and weight loss (Choice A) may indicate the diuretic effect of furosemide but do not specifically reflect its effectiveness in heart failure. Increased heart rate and blood pressure (Choice B) are not desired effects of furosemide and may suggest adverse reactions. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds (Choice D) are related to improved respiratory status and may not directly reflect the effectiveness of furosemide in addressing fluid overload.

3. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed heparin therapy. What laboratory value should the nurse monitor?

• A. Monitor the client’s liver function tests.
• B. Monitor the client’s prothrombin time (PT).
• C. Monitor the client’s partial thromboplastin time (PTT).
• D. Monitor the client’s red blood cell count.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client’s partial thromboplastin time (PTT). During heparin therapy for DVT, it is essential to monitor the PTT to assess the effectiveness of the medication in preventing clot formation. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because liver function tests, prothrombin time (PT), and red blood cell count are not specifically monitored to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy in preventing clot formation.

4. When assessing a client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder who reports taking a handful of medications, what information is most important to obtain?

• A. What drugs the client used in the suicide attempt.
• B. When the client last took medications for bipolar disorder.
• C. Whether the client has attempted suicide before.
• D. Which family member has the suicide note.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain information on what drugs the client used in the suicide attempt. This information is crucial for assessing the severity of the overdose, potential drug interactions, and determining the appropriate treatment plan. Choice B is not as urgent as identifying the drugs taken during the suicide attempt. Choice C, while important, is not as immediately critical as knowing the specific medications involved. Choice D is unrelated to the immediate medical needs of the client.

5. The nurse has completed the diet teaching of a client who is being discharged following treatment of a leg wound. A high-protein diet is encouraged to promote wound healing. Which lunch choice by the client indicates that the teaching was effective?

• A. A tuna fish sandwich with chips and ice cream
• B. A vegetable salad with croutons and ranch dressing
• C. A grilled chicken breast with steamed vegetables
• D. A peanut butter and jelly sandwich with soda

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Grilled chicken is an excellent source of protein, which is important for wound healing. Choices A, B, and D are less ideal for wound healing. Choice A contains high-fat and high-sugar components like chips and ice cream, which may not support wound healing effectively. Choice B includes croutons and ranch dressing, which may not provide as much protein as needed for wound healing. Choice D with a peanut butter and jelly sandwich and soda lacks a balanced meal with adequate protein to promote wound healing.

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