Nursing Elites

1. A 49-year-old female client arrives at the clinic for an annual exam and asks the nurse why she becomes excessively diaphoretic and feels warm during nighttime. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Explain the effects of follicle-stimulating and luteinizing hormones.
• B. Discuss perimenopause and related comfort measures.
• C. Assess lung fields and check for a cough productive of blood-tinged mucus.
• D. Inquire if a fever above 101°F (38.3°C) has occurred in the last 24 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The symptoms described by the client, excessive diaphoresis and feeling warm at night, are characteristic of perimenopause. During this period, lower estrogen levels lead to surges in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), resulting in vasomotor instability, night sweats, and hot flashes. Therefore, discussing perimenopause and related comfort measures with the client is essential to provide education and support. Choice A is incorrect because explaining the effects of FSH and LH alone does not directly address the client's current symptoms. Choice C is irrelevant as it focuses on assessing lung fields and cough symptoms, which are not related to the client's menopausal symptoms. Choice D is not the best response as it is more focused on ruling out fever as a cause, which is not typically associated with the symptoms described by the client.

2. A client with kidney stones from secondary hyperoxaluria requires medication. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering?

• A. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)
• B. Propantheline (Pro-Banthine)
• C. Tolterodine (Detrol LA)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Allopurinol (Zyloprim). Allopurinol is used to treat kidney stones caused by secondary hyperoxaluria. This medication helps prevent the formation of certain types of kidney stones. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) is given to clients with urinary tract infections, not for kidney stones. Propantheline (Pro-Banthine) is an anticholinergic medication used for treating certain gastrointestinal conditions, not kidney stones. Tolterodine (Detrol LA) is also an anticholinergic with smooth muscle relaxant properties, primarily used to treat overactive bladder conditions, not kidney stones.

3. After a lumbar puncture, into which position does the nurse assist the client?

• A. Flat
• B. Semi-Fowler
• C. Side-lying with the head of the bed elevated
• D. Sitting up in a recliner with the feet elevated

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a lumbar puncture, the client should be positioned flat. This position helps prevent post-procedure spinal headaches and cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Keeping the client flat for up to 12 hours is crucial in minimizing these risks. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because elevating the head of the bed or sitting up can increase the risk of complications by altering the pressure in the spinal canal, potentially leading to headaches and fluid leakage.

4. During a routine clinic visit, a nurse is assessing a 48-year-old client with a history of smoking. The client, who exercises regularly, reports calf pain during exercise that disappears at rest. Which of the following findings requires further evaluation?

• A. Heart rate of 57 bpm.
• B. SpO2 of 94% on room air.
• C. Blood pressure of 134/82.
• D. Ankle-brachial index of 0.65.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An Ankle-Brachial Index of 0.65 suggests moderate arterial vascular disease in a client experiencing intermittent claudication, indicating compromised blood flow to the lower extremities during exercise. This finding requires further evaluation to assess the severity of arterial insufficiency and determine appropriate interventions. Choice A (Heart rate of 57 bpm) is within the normal range for an adult at rest and indicates good cardiovascular fitness. Choice B (SpO2 of 94% on room air) is slightly lower than the normal range but is generally acceptable in a healthy individual. Choice C (Blood pressure of 134/82) falls within the normal range and does not raise immediate concerns in this context.

5. A client recovering from a urologic procedure is being assessed by a nurse. Which assessment finding indicates an obstruction of urine flow?

• A. Severe pain
• B. Overflow incontinence
• C. Hypotension
• D. Blood-tinged urine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Overflow incontinence.' The most common manifestation of urethral stricture after a urologic procedure is obstruction of urine flow. This obstruction can lead to overflow incontinence, which is the involuntary loss of urine when the bladder is distended. Severe pain is not typically associated with an obstruction of urine flow. Hypotension is unrelated to this issue. Blood-tinged urine is not a direct indication of an obstruction of urine flow but may indicate other conditions like trauma or infection.

Similar Questions