a 49 year old female client arrives at the clinic for an annual exam and asks the nurse why she becomes excessively diaphoretic and feels warm during a 49 year old female client arrives at the clinic for an annual exam and asks the nurse why she becomes excessively diaphoretic and feels warm during
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HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet

1. A 49-year-old female client arrives at the clinic for an annual exam and asks the nurse why she becomes excessively diaphoretic and feels warm during nighttime. What is the nurse's best response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The symptoms described by the client, excessive diaphoresis and feeling warm at night, are characteristic of perimenopause. During this period, lower estrogen levels lead to surges in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), resulting in vasomotor instability, night sweats, and hot flashes. Therefore, discussing perimenopause and related comfort measures with the client is essential to provide education and support. Choice A is incorrect because explaining the effects of FSH and LH alone does not directly address the client's current symptoms. Choice C is irrelevant as it focuses on assessing lung fields and cough symptoms, which are not related to the client's menopausal symptoms. Choice D is not the best response as it is more focused on ruling out fever as a cause, which is not typically associated with the symptoms described by the client.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with pheochromocytoma. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare provider implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with pheochromocytoma is to administer beta-blockers to control blood pressure. Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine-secreting tumor that can cause severe hypertension. Beta-blockers are used to block the effects of catecholamines and help control blood pressure in these clients. Encouraging a high-sodium diet (Choice B) would not be appropriate as it can worsen hypertension. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia (Choice C) is not directly related to managing pheochromocytoma. Restricting fluid intake (Choice D) may lead to dehydration and is not a recommended intervention for this condition.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus is scheduled for surgery, and their blood glucose level is 280 mg/dL. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer insulin as prescribed. In clients with diabetes, high blood glucose levels can increase the risk of infection and impair healing after surgery. Administering insulin as prescribed helps reduce blood glucose to a safer level before surgery, preventing complications. Choice B is incorrect because delaying surgery without addressing the high blood glucose level does not address the immediate issue. Choice C is incorrect as checking the client's hemoglobin A1C level is not the priority when dealing with acute high blood glucose levels before surgery. Choice D is incorrect as administering IV fluids may help with hydration but does not directly address the high blood glucose level that needs immediate attention.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease starts on hemodialysis. During the first dialysis treatment, the client's blood pressure drops from 150/90 to 80/30. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The initial action the nurse should take when a client's blood pressure drops significantly during hemodialysis is to lower the head of the chair and elevate the feet. This position adjustment helps improve blood flow to the brain and vital organs, assisting in stabilizing blood pressure. Stopping the dialysis treatment immediately may not be necessary if the blood pressure can be managed effectively by position changes. Administering 5% albumin IV is not the first-line intervention for hypotension during dialysis. Monitoring blood pressure every 45 minutes is important but not the immediate action needed to address the significant drop in blood pressure observed during the dialysis session.

5. The healthcare professional is planning a health education workshop for a group of adolescents on the dangers of substance abuse. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Inviting individuals in recovery to share their stories is the most effective strategy for educating adolescents about the dangers of substance abuse. Personal stories have a significant impact as they provide real-life examples of the consequences of substance abuse, making the information more relatable and emotionally engaging. This approach can evoke empathy, create a deeper understanding of the risks involved, and potentially deter adolescents from experimenting with substances. Showing videos of the effects of substance abuse (choice A) may be impactful, but personal narratives often have a stronger emotional connection. Providing statistical data (choice C) may not resonate as strongly with adolescents as personal stories. Distributing brochures (choice D) is informative but may not have the same emotional impact and engagement as hearing firsthand experiences.

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