HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. Upon admission, a 77-year-old female client presents with confusion, loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, and headache, with a pulse rate of 43 beats per minute. Which question should the nurse prioritize asking the client or her family?
- A. Does the client have her own teeth or dentures?
- B. Does the client take aspirin, and if so, what is the dosage?
- C. Does the client take nitroglycerin?
- D. Does the client take digitalis?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client's symptoms suggest digitalis toxicity, a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Digitalis toxicity can present with symptoms such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, headache, and bradycardia (low pulse rate). Given the client's presentation, it is crucial to assess for digitalis use as elderly individuals are more susceptible to this type of intoxication. Choices A, B, and C are important aspects to consider during the assessment, but in this scenario, the priority lies in identifying and addressing the potential digitalis toxicity due to the severity of symptoms and the need for prompt intervention.
2. The home health nurse provides teaching about insulin self-injection to a client who was recently diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. When the client begins to perform a return demonstration of an insulin injection into the abdomen, which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Select a different injection site
- B. Continue with the insulin injection
- C. Keep the skin flat rather than bunched
- D. Lie down flat for better skin exposure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choosing to continue with the insulin injection is the correct instruction in this scenario because it allows the client to demonstrate proper technique and reinforces their learning. Selecting a different injection site (choice A) is not necessary if the client is injecting into the abdomen as it is a suitable site. Keeping the skin flat rather than bunched (choice C) is a good practice but is not the priority in this situation where the client is demonstrating the injection technique. Lying down flat for better skin exposure (choice D) is not required and may not be practical for the client during routine self-injections.
3. When planning care for a client newly diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma, the nurse identifies a priority nursing problem of 'visual sensory/perceptual alterations.' This problem is based on which etiology?
- A. Blurred distance vision
- B. Limited eye movement
- C. Decreased peripheral vision
- D. Photosensitivity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Decreased peripheral vision.' Open-angle glaucoma leads to a gradual loss of peripheral vision due to damage to the optic nerve. This loss of peripheral vision is a hallmark sign of the condition and a primary reason for the visual sensory/perceptual alterations experienced by the client. Blurred distance vision (choice A) may occur but is not the priority nursing problem. Limited eye movement (choice B) and photosensitivity (choice D) are not typically associated with the sensory/perceptual alterations seen in open-angle glaucoma.
4. A 20-year-old female client calls the nurse to report a lump she found in her breast. Which response is the best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Check it again in one month, and if it is still there schedule an appointment.
- B. Most lumps are benign, but it is always best to come in for an examination.
- C. Try not to worry too much about it, because usually, most lumps are benign.
- D. If you are in your menstrual period it is not a good time to check for lumps.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse advising the client to come in provides the best response because it addresses the client's anxiety most effectively and encourages prompt and immediate action for a potential problem.
5. A nurse cares for adult clients who experience urge incontinence. For which client should the nurse plan a habit training program?
- A. A 78-year-old female who is confused
- B. A 65-year-old male with diabetes mellitus
- C. A 52-year-old female with kidney failure
- D. A 47-year-old male with arthritis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For a bladder training program to succeed in a client with urge incontinence, the client must be alert, aware, and able to resist the urge to urinate. Habit training will work best for a confused client. This includes going to the bathroom (or being assisted to the bathroom) at set times. The other clients may benefit from other types of bladder training. A confused client may need structured assistance to establish a regular bathroom routine, which can help manage urge incontinence effectively. Clients with diabetes mellitus, kidney failure, or arthritis may require different strategies tailored to their specific conditions.
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