a 77 year old female client is admitted to the hospital she is confused has no appetite is nauseated and vomiting and is complaining of a headache her
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet

1. Upon admission, a 77-year-old female client presents with confusion, loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, and headache, with a pulse rate of 43 beats per minute. Which question should the nurse prioritize asking the client or her family?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client's symptoms suggest digitalis toxicity, a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Digitalis toxicity can present with symptoms such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, headache, and bradycardia (low pulse rate). Given the client's presentation, it is crucial to assess for digitalis use as elderly individuals are more susceptible to this type of intoxication. Choices A, B, and C are important aspects to consider during the assessment, but in this scenario, the priority lies in identifying and addressing the potential digitalis toxicity due to the severity of symptoms and the need for prompt intervention.

2. A nurse reviews the urinalysis of a client and notes the presence of glucose. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Glucose normally is not found in the urine. The normal renal threshold for glucose is about 220 mg/dL, which means that a person whose blood glucose is less than 220 mg/dL will not have glucose in the urine. A positive finding for glucose on urinalysis indicates high blood sugar. The most appropriate action would be to perform a capillary artery glucose assessment. The client needs further evaluation for this abnormal result; therefore, documenting and continuing to monitor is not appropriate. Requesting a 24-hour urine test or reviewing the client’s dietary selections will not assist the nurse to make a clinical decision related to this abnormality.

3. The adult client admitted to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) following abdominal surgery has a tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.8°C), a pulse rate of 88 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 94/64 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Taking the client's temperature using another method is the most appropriate action in this situation. A tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.8°C) is abnormally low and may not reflect the true core body temperature accurately. By using an alternative method, such as oral or rectal temperature measurement, the nurse can obtain a more reliable temperature reading. Raising the head of the bed (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing the low temperature. Asking the client to cough and deep breathe (Choice C) may be beneficial for respiratory function but does not address the temperature concern. Checking the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour (Choice D) is not the priority when the initial focus should be on accurate temperature assessment.

4. A pregnant client tells the nurse, “I am experiencing a burning pain when I urinate.” How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pregnant clients with a urinary tract infection require prompt and aggressive treatment because cystitis can lead to acute pyelonephritis during pregnancy. The nurse should encourage the client to make an appointment and have the infection treated. Burning pain when urinating does not indicate the start of labor or weakening of pelvic muscles. Choice A is incorrect because burning pain during urination does not signify the start of labor. Choice B is incorrect because while cranberry juice may help prevent urinary tract infections, it is not a treatment. Choice D is incorrect because burning pain when urinating is not indicative of weakening pelvic muscles.

5. A client tells the clinic nurse about experiencing burning on urination, and assessment reveals that the client had sexual intercourse four days ago with a person who was casually met. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Obtaining a urethral drainage specimen for culture is crucial in diagnosing a potential sexually transmitted infection (STI) in this client. While assessing for perineal symptoms like itching, erythema, and excoriation (Choice C) may provide additional information, obtaining a culture is more definitive. Observing for a chancroid-like lesion (Choice A) is not as pertinent as obtaining a culture for a broader diagnostic approach. Identifying all sexual partners in the last four days (Choice D) is important for contact tracing but obtaining a specimen for culture takes priority in this scenario.

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