HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. Which of the following is a common sign of meningitis?
- A. Joint pain.
- B. Severe headache.
- C. Stiff neck.
- D. Coughing up blood.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A stiff neck is a common sign of meningitis due to inflammation of the meninges. Meningitis typically presents with symptoms such as fever, severe headache, nausea, vomiting, sensitivity to light, and a stiff neck. Joint pain (Choice A) is not a typical symptom of meningitis and is more commonly associated with other conditions. While severe headache (Choice B) can be a symptom of meningitis, it is not as specific as a stiff neck. Coughing up blood (Choice D) is not a typical sign of meningitis and may indicate other respiratory or cardiovascular issues.
2. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving isotonic intravenous (IV) fluids at an infusion rate of 125 mL/hour. The nurse performs an assessment and notes a heart rate of 102 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 160/85 mm Hg, and crackles auscultated in both lungs. Which action will the nurse take?
- A. Decrease the IV fluid rate and notify the provider.
- B. Increase the IV fluid rate and notify the provider.
- C. Request an order for a colloidal IV solution.
- D. Request an order for a hypertonic IV solution.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The patient is showing signs of fluid volume excess, indicated by crackles in both lungs, increased heart rate, and elevated blood pressure. To address this, the nurse should decrease the IV fluid rate and notify the provider. Increasing the IV fluid rate would worsen fluid overload. Requesting colloidal or hypertonic IV solutions would exacerbate the issue by pulling more fluids into the intravascular space, leading to further volume overload.
3. A nurse cares for adult clients who experience urge incontinence. For which client should the nurse plan a habit training program?
- A. A 78-year-old female who is confused
- B. A 65-year-old male with diabetes mellitus
- C. A 52-year-old female with kidney failure
- D. A 47-year-old male with arthritis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For a bladder training program to succeed in a client with urge incontinence, the client must be alert, aware, and able to resist the urge to urinate. Habit training will work best for a confused client. This includes going to the bathroom (or being assisted to the bathroom) at set times. The other clients may benefit from other types of bladder training. A confused client may need structured assistance to establish a regular bathroom routine, which can help manage urge incontinence effectively. Clients with diabetes mellitus, kidney failure, or arthritis may require different strategies tailored to their specific conditions.
4. A client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy should have which of the following laboratory results reviewed to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Complete blood count (CBC).
- B. Prothrombin time (PT).
- C. International normalized ratio (INR).
- D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT).
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is the most appropriate laboratory result to review when evaluating the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication, and the INR helps determine if the dosage is within a therapeutic range to prevent clotting or bleeding complications. Choice A, a Complete Blood Count (CBC), provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Choice B, Prothrombin time (PT), measures the time it takes for blood to clot but is not as specific for monitoring warfarin therapy as the INR. Choice D, Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT), evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not the primary test used to monitor warfarin therapy.
5. The healthcare provider is caring for a 7-year-old patient who will receive oral antibiotics. Which antibiotic order will the healthcare provider question for this patient?
- A. Azithromycin (Zithromax)
- B. Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
- C. Clindamycin (Cleocin)
- D. Tetracycline (Sumycin)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Tetracycline (Sumycin). Tetracyclines should not be given to children younger than 8 years of age because they irreversibly discolor the permanent teeth. Azithromycin, Clarithromycin, and Clindamycin are antibiotics that are generally safe for use in children and do not have the same tooth discoloration side effect as Tetracycline. Therefore, these antibiotics would be more appropriate choices for a 7-year-old patient.
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