Nursing Elites

1. When conducting discharge teaching for a client diagnosed with diverticulitis, which diet instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Have small, frequent meals and sit up for at least two hours after meals
• B. Eat a bland diet and avoid spicy foods
• C. Eat a high-fiber diet and increase fluid intake
• D. Eat a soft diet with increased intake of milk and milk products

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a client diagnosed with diverticulitis, the nurse should instruct them to eat a high-fiber diet and increase fluid intake. This diet helps in managing diverticulitis by promoting bowel regularity and preventing complications such as diverticular inflammation or infection. Choice A of having small, frequent meals and sitting up for at least two hours after meals may be beneficial for gastroesophageal reflux disease but is not specific to diverticulitis. Choice B of eating a bland diet and avoiding spicy foods is not the preferred recommendation for diverticulitis management. Choice D of eating a soft diet with increased intake of milk and milk products may not provide enough fiber to aid in diverticulitis management, and the increased intake of dairy products may worsen symptoms in some individuals.

2. A nurse reviews laboratory results for a client with glomerulonephritis. The client’s glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is 40 mL/min as measured by a 24-hour creatinine clearance. How should the nurse interpret this finding? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Excessive GFR
• B. Reduced GFR
• C. Fluid retention and risks for hypertension
• D. Pulmonary edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A GFR of 40 mL/min indicates a reduced glomerular filtration rate. In a healthy adult, the normal GFR ranges between 100 and 120 mL/min. A GFR of 40 mL/min signifies a significant reduction, leading to fluid retention and risks for hypertension and pulmonary edema due to excess vascular fluid. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect as a GFR of 40 mL/min is not excessive but rather reduced. Choices C and D do not directly address the interpretation of GFR but instead describe potential consequences of a reduced GFR.

3. When providing care for an unconscious client who has seizures, which nursing intervention is most essential?

• A. Ensure oral suction is available.
• B. Maintain the client in a semi-Fowler's position.
• C. Provide frequent mouth care.
• D. Keep the room at a comfortable temperature.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During seizures in an unconscious client, ensuring oral suction is available is crucial to managing secretions and preventing aspiration. This intervention helps maintain a clear airway and reduce the risk of complications. Maintaining the client in a semi-Fowler's position (Choice B) may be important for airway management but is not as critical as having oral suction ready. Providing frequent mouth care (Choice C) and keeping the room at a comfortable temperature (Choice D) are important aspects of overall care but are not as urgently needed as ensuring oral suction for managing secretions during seizures.

4. When assessing an individual with peripheral vascular disease, which clinical manifestation would indicate complete arterial obstruction in the lower left leg?

• A. Aching pain in the left calf.
• B. Burning pain in the left calf.
• C. Numbness and tingling in the left leg.
• D. Coldness of the left foot and ankle.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Coldness of the left foot and ankle is the correct clinical manifestation indicating complete arterial obstruction in the lower left leg. Complete arterial obstruction results in reduced blood flow, leading to decreased temperature in the affected area. Aching pain (Choice A) and burning pain (Choice B) are more commonly associated with partial obstructions or ischemia, while numbness and tingling (Choice C) can be indicative of nerve involvement or compromised circulation, but not specifically complete arterial obstruction. The coldness in the foot and ankle is a result of severely reduced blood flow, which impairs the delivery of oxygen and nutrients to the tissues in that area, leading to a lower temperature. This symptom is a critical indicator of a more severe blockage compared to the other options provided.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to be seen in a patient with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Hypernatremia.
• B. Hyperkalemia.
• C. Hypocalcemia.
• D. Hypokalemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, hyperkalemia is the most common electrolyte imbalance due to the kidneys' reduced ability to excrete potassium. This impaired kidney function leads to potassium retention in the body, resulting in elevated serum potassium levels. Hypernatremia (increased sodium levels) is less likely in chronic kidney disease as the kidneys typically still function to regulate sodium levels. Hypocalcemia (low calcium levels) is not a prominent electrolyte imbalance in chronic kidney disease unless there are additional factors involved. Hypokalemia (low potassium levels) is less common in chronic kidney disease, as the primary issue is usually potassium retention rather than deficiency.

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