HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. The healthcare provider assesses a client with cirrhosis and finds 4+ pitting edema of the feet and legs, and massive ascites. Which mechanism contributes to edema and ascites in clients with cirrhosis?
- A. Hyperaldosteronism causing increased sodium transport ion in renal tubules
- B. Decreased portacaval pressure with greater collateral circulation
- C. Decreased renin-angiotensin response related to increased renal blood flow
- D. Hypoalbuminemia that results in decreased colloidal oncotic pressure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, hypoalbuminemia leads to decreased colloidal oncotic pressure. This reduction in oncotic pressure contributes to the development of edema in the feet and legs (pitting edema) and ascites in the abdomen. Hyperaldosteronism (choice A) would lead to sodium retention but is not the primary mechanism behind edema and ascites in cirrhosis. Decreased portacaval pressure with greater collateral circulation (choice B) is not directly related to the pathophysiology of edema and ascites in cirrhosis. Decreased renin-angiotensin response related to increased renal blood flow (choice C) does not play a significant role in the development of edema and ascites in cirrhosis compared to the impact of hypoalbuminemia on colloidal oncotic pressure.
2. A client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis has blood drawn for several serum laboratory tests. Which of the following serum amylase values, noted by the nurse reviewing the results, would be expected in this client at this time?
- A. 48 units/L
- B. 97 units/L
- C. 150 units/L
- D. 395 units/L
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "395 units/L." The normal serum amylase range is 25 to 151 units/L. In acute pancreatitis, the amylase level is greatly increased, typically exceeding the upper limit of the normal range. Choices A, B, and C fall within the normal range of serum amylase levels and would not be expected in a client with acute pancreatitis.
3. A healthcare professional reviews the allergy list of a client scheduled for an intravenous urography. Which client allergy should prompt urgent contact with the healthcare provider?
- A. Seafood
- B. Penicillin
- C. Bee stings
- D. Red food dye
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clients with seafood allergies should alert healthcare professionals to urgently contact the healthcare provider before an intravenous urography. The standard dyes used in this procedure can trigger severe allergic reactions in individuals with seafood allergies. Penicillin, bee stings, and red food dye allergies do not pose a direct threat during intravenous urography, making them less critical for immediate intervention.
4. A 68-year-old client on day 2 after hip surgery has no cardiac history but reports having chest heaviness. The first nursing action should be to:
- A. Inquire about the onset, duration, severity, and precipitating factors of the heaviness.
- B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- C. Offer pain medication for the chest heaviness.
- D. Inform the physician of the chest heaviness.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first nursing action when a client reports chest heaviness post-hip surgery is to gather more information through assessment. Inquiring about the onset, duration, severity, and precipitating factors of the heaviness is crucial to determine the cause. This approach helps the nurse to gather essential data to make an informed decision regarding the client's care. Administering oxygen (Choice B) may be indicated based on assessment findings, but it is crucial to assess first. Offering pain medication (Choice C) without further assessment is premature and may mask symptoms. Informing the physician (Choice D) should be done after a thorough assessment to provide comprehensive information for appropriate medical decision-making.
5. The nurse is obtaining the admission history for a client with suspected peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Which subjective data reported by the client supports this diagnosis?
- A. Frequent use of chewable and liquid antacids for indigestion
- B. Severe abdominal cramps and diarrhea after eating spicy foods
- C. Upper mid-abdominal gnawing and burning pain
- D. Marked weight loss and appetite over the last 3 to 4 months
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Upper mid-abdominal gnawing and burning pain.' This symptom is a classic presentation of peptic ulcer disease. Antacids (choice A) may provide relief but do not confirm the diagnosis. Severe abdominal cramps and diarrhea (choice B) are more suggestive of other conditions like irritable bowel syndrome. Weight loss and appetite changes (choice D) are non-specific and could be related to various health issues.
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