Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider assesses a client with cirrhosis and finds 4+ pitting edema of the feet and legs, and massive ascites. Which mechanism contributes to edema and ascites in clients with cirrhosis?

• A. Hyperaldosteronism causing increased sodium transport ion in renal tubules
• B. Decreased portacaval pressure with greater collateral circulation
• C. Decreased renin-angiotensin response related to increased renal blood flow
• D. Hypoalbuminemia that results in decreased colloidal oncotic pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, hypoalbuminemia leads to decreased colloidal oncotic pressure. This reduction in oncotic pressure contributes to the development of edema in the feet and legs (pitting edema) and ascites in the abdomen. Hyperaldosteronism (choice A) would lead to sodium retention but is not the primary mechanism behind edema and ascites in cirrhosis. Decreased portacaval pressure with greater collateral circulation (choice B) is not directly related to the pathophysiology of edema and ascites in cirrhosis. Decreased renin-angiotensin response related to increased renal blood flow (choice C) does not play a significant role in the development of edema and ascites in cirrhosis compared to the impact of hypoalbuminemia on colloidal oncotic pressure.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease starts on hemodialysis. During the first dialysis treatment, the client's blood pressure drops from 150/90 to 80/30. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Stop the dialysis treatment
• B. Administer 5% albumin IV
• C. Monitor blood pressure every 45 minutes
• D. Lower the head of the chair and elevate feet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The initial action the nurse should take when a client's blood pressure drops significantly during hemodialysis is to lower the head of the chair and elevate the feet. This position adjustment helps improve blood flow to the brain and vital organs, assisting in stabilizing blood pressure. Stopping the dialysis treatment immediately may not be necessary if the blood pressure can be managed effectively by position changes. Administering 5% albumin IV is not the first-line intervention for hypotension during dialysis. Monitoring blood pressure every 45 minutes is important but not the immediate action needed to address the significant drop in blood pressure observed during the dialysis session.

3. Four hours following surgical repair of a compound fracture of the right ulna, the nurse is unable to palpate the client's right radial pulse. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the finding immediately.
• B. Complete a neurovascular assessment of the right hand.
• C. Elevate the client's right hand on one or two pillows.
• D. Measure the client's blood pressure and apical pulse rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Completing a neurovascular assessment of the right hand is the priority in this situation. This assessment will help determine the circulation, sensation, and movement of the affected limb, ensuring there are no complications like compartment syndrome or impaired perfusion. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice A) might be necessary but should come after assessing the client's neurovascular status. Elevating the client's right hand (Choice C) can be helpful in some cases but should not precede a neurovascular assessment. Measuring the client's blood pressure and apical pulse rate (Choice D) is important but not the priority when assessing a potential vascular compromise in the limb.

4. A female patient who is allergic to penicillin will begin taking an antibiotic to treat a lower respiratory tract infection. The patient tells the nurse that she almost always develops a vaginal yeast infection when she takes antibiotics and that she will take fluconazole (Diflucan) with the antibiotic being prescribed. Which macrolide should the nurse question for this patient?

• A. Azithromycin (Zithromax)
• B. Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
• C. Erythromycin (E-Mycin)
• D. Fidaxomicin (Dificid)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should question the prescription of erythromycin for this patient. When erythromycin is given concurrently with fluconazole, erythromycin blood concentration and the risk of sudden cardiac death increase. Therefore, it is not recommended to use erythromycin in combination with fluconazole for this patient. Azithromycin, clarithromycin, and fidaxomicin are alternative macrolide antibiotics that can be considered for this patient without the same risk of interactions when used with fluconazole.

5. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a radical nephrectomy for renal cell carcinoma. The nurse notes that the client’s blood pressure has decreased from 134/90 to 100/56 mm Hg and urine output is 20 mL for this past hour. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Position the client to lay on the surgical incision.
• B. Measure the specific gravity of the client’s urine.
• C. Administer intravenous pain medications.
• D. Assess the rate and quality of the client’s pulse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should first fully assess the client for signs of volume depletion and shock, and then notify the provider. The radical nature of the surgery and the proximity of the surgery to the adrenal gland put the client at risk for hemorrhage and adrenal insufficiency. Hypotension is a clinical manifestation associated with both hemorrhage and adrenal insufficiency. Hypotension is particularly dangerous for the remaining kidney, which must receive adequate perfusion to function effectively. Re-positioning the client, measuring specific gravity, and administering pain medication would not provide data necessary to make an appropriate clinical decision, nor are they appropriate interventions at this time.

Similar Questions