Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 1 DM calls the nurse to report recurrent episodes of hypoglycemia with exercise. Which statement by the client indicates an inadequate understanding of the peak action of NPH insulin and exercise?

• A. The best time for me to exercise is every afternoon.
• B. The best time for me to exercise is right after I eat.
• C. The best time for me to exercise is after breakfast.
• D. The best time for me to exercise is after my morning snack.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exercising in the afternoon may coincide with the peak action of NPH insulin, increasing the risk of hypoglycemia. The peak action of NPH insulin typically occurs 4-12 hours after administration, so exercising during this time can further lower blood sugar levels. Choices B, C, and D are better options as they suggest exercising at times that are less likely to overlap with the peak insulin action, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia.

2. A female adult client with a history of chronic hyperparathyroidism admits to being noncompliant. Based on initial assessment findings, the nurse formulates the nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. To complete the nursing diagnosis statement for this client, which 'related-to' phrase should the nurse add?

• A. Related to bone demineralization resulting in pathologic fractures
• B. Related to exhaustion secondary to an accelerated metabolic rate
• C. Related to edema and dry skin secondary to fluid infiltration into the interstitial spaces
• D. Related to tetany secondary to a decreased serum calcium level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Related to bone demineralization resulting in pathologic fractures.' In chronic hyperparathyroidism, bone demineralization occurs due to the excessive release of parathyroid hormone, leading to increased calcium resorption from bones. This process weakens the bones, making the client prone to pathologic fractures. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the increased risk of injury associated with chronic hyperparathyroidism. Exhaustion, edema, dry skin, and tetany are not the primary risks for injury in this client population.

3. In a male client with a history of hypertension diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism, the hypertension is caused by excessive hormone secretion from which of the following glands?

• A. Adrenal cortex
• B. Pancreas
• C. Adrenal medulla
• D. Parathyroid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Primary hyperaldosteronism is characterized by excessive secretion of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. Aldosterone, a hormone produced by the adrenal cortex, plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by promoting sodium and water retention in the kidneys. The adrenal medulla secretes catecholamines like epinephrine and norepinephrine, which are involved in the 'fight or flight' response, not in regulating blood pressure. The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon, hormones involved in blood sugar regulation, not blood pressure. The parathyroid glands regulate calcium levels in the blood, not blood pressure.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication orders for a client with hypothyroidism. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional question?

• A. Levothyroxine
• B. Amiodarone
• C. Calcium supplements
• D. Aspirin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Amiodarone. Amiodarone can affect thyroid function and potentially worsen hypothyroidism, so its use should be carefully considered or questioned in clients with this condition. Levothyroxine (Choice A) is the mainstay therapy for hypothyroidism and should not be questioned in this scenario. Calcium supplements (Choice C) are not typically contraindicated in clients with hypothyroidism and may be needed if there is a deficiency. Aspirin (Choice D) is not directly related to thyroid function and is not a medication that would typically be questioned in a client with hypothyroidism.

5. When caring for a male client with diabetes insipidus, what does Nurse Juliet expect to administer?

• A. Vasopressin (Pitressin Synthetic)
• B. Furosemide (Lasix)
• C. Regular insulin
• D. 10% dextrose

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vasopressin (Pitressin Synthetic). Vasopressin is the treatment of choice for diabetes insipidus as it replaces the deficient antidiuretic hormone. Furosemide (Lasix) (choice B) is a diuretic and would exacerbate fluid loss, making it inappropriate for diabetes insipidus. Regular insulin (choice C) is used for diabetes mellitus, not diabetes insipidus, which involves water balance rather than glucose regulation. 10% dextrose (choice D) is used to treat hypoglycemia, not diabetes insipidus.

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