Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 1 DM calls the nurse to report recurrent episodes of hypoglycemia with exercise. Which statement by the client indicates an inadequate understanding of the peak action of NPH insulin and exercise?

• A. The best time for me to exercise is every afternoon.
• B. The best time for me to exercise is right after I eat.
• C. The best time for me to exercise is after breakfast.
• D. The best time for me to exercise is after my morning snack.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exercising in the afternoon may coincide with the peak action of NPH insulin, increasing the risk of hypoglycemia. The peak action of NPH insulin typically occurs 4-12 hours after administration, so exercising during this time can further lower blood sugar levels. Choices B, C, and D are better options as they suggest exercising at times that are less likely to overlap with the peak insulin action, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia.

2. A client is receiving levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. Which of the following findings would indicate that the medication is effective?

• A. Decreased heart rate
• B. Increased weight
• C. Increased energy levels
• D. Decreased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased energy levels. When a client with hypothyroidism is receiving levothyroxine, increased energy levels indicate that thyroid hormone levels are being normalized, which is a positive response to treatment. This improvement reflects the effectiveness of the medication in addressing the underlying hypothyroidism. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Decreased heart rate and decreased appetite may be symptoms of hypothyroidism and would not necessarily indicate the effectiveness of levothyroxine. Increased weight could also be a symptom of hypothyroidism and does not directly reflect the medication's effectiveness.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Decreased urine output
• D. Polyuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased urine output.' Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by excessive release of antidiuretic hormone, leading to water retention and decreased urine output. Therefore, the nurse should expect the client to have decreased urine output. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypernatremia (Choice A) is not typically associated with SIADH as it usually leads to dilutional hyponatremia. Hypotension (Choice B) is not a common clinical manifestation of SIADH. Polyuria (Choice D) is the opposite of what is expected in a client with SIADH, who typically presents with decreased urine output.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. The nurse should instruct the client to do which of the following?

• A. Eat a high-protein snack
• B. Consume 15 grams of simple carbohydrates
• C. Drink a glass of water
• D. Administer an extra dose of insulin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Consuming 15 grams of simple carbohydrates is the recommended treatment for mild hypoglycemia to quickly raise blood sugar levels. Simple carbohydrates are rapidly absorbed and provide a quick source of glucose to combat low blood sugar. Eating a high-protein snack (Choice A) would delay the rise in blood sugar as proteins take longer to be broken down. Drinking water (Choice C) does not directly address the low blood sugar levels associated with hypoglycemia. Administering an extra dose of insulin (Choice D) would further lower blood sugar levels, worsening the hypoglycemic state.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes was previously well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

• A. Prednisone (Deltasone)
• B. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can increase blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreasing glucose uptake by cells. This medication can lead to hyperglycemia in patients, especially those with diabetes mellitus. Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta-blocker and is not known to significantly affect blood glucose levels. Phenelzine (Nardil) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used to treat depression and anxiety disorders; it does not typically impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not interfere with blood glucose regulation.

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