Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 1 DM calls the nurse to report recurrent episodes of hypoglycemia with exercise. Which statement by the client indicates an inadequate understanding of the peak action of NPH insulin and exercise?

• A. The best time for me to exercise is every afternoon.
• B. The best time for me to exercise is right after I eat.
• C. The best time for me to exercise is after breakfast.
• D. The best time for me to exercise is after my morning snack.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exercising in the afternoon may coincide with the peak action of NPH insulin, increasing the risk of hypoglycemia. The peak action of NPH insulin typically occurs 4-12 hours after administration, so exercising during this time can further lower blood sugar levels. Choices B, C, and D are better options as they suggest exercising at times that are less likely to overlap with the peak insulin action, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia.

2. The client with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus is being taught about managing blood glucose levels. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will rotate my insulin injection sites to avoid tissue damage.
• B. I will monitor my blood glucose levels before each meal.
• C. I can eat unlimited fruit as it is healthy.
• D. I should carry a fast-acting carbohydrate with me at all times.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C indicates a need for further teaching because stating 'I can eat unlimited fruit as it is healthy' is incorrect. While fruits are healthy, they also contain natural sugars that can affect blood glucose levels. Portion control is crucial to managing blood glucose levels effectively. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate correct understanding. Rotating insulin injection sites helps prevent tissue damage, monitoring blood glucose levels before meals aids in managing diabetes effectively, and carrying a fast-acting carbohydrate is essential to treat hypoglycemia promptly.

3. Nurse Perry is caring for a female client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who exhibits confusion, light-headedness, and aberrant behavior. The client is still conscious. The nurse should first administer:

• A. I.M. or subcutaneous glucagon.
• B. I.V. bolus of dextrose 50%.
• C. 15 to 20 g of a fast-acting carbohydrate such as orange juice.
• D. 10 U of fast-acting insulin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a conscious client with hypoglycemia, the initial treatment should involve administering 15 to 20 g of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as orange juice. This helps rapidly raise the client's blood glucose levels. Choices A and D are incorrect as administering glucagon or fast-acting insulin is not the first-line treatment for hypoglycemia in a conscious client. Choice B, an I.V. bolus of dextrose 50%, is a more invasive and aggressive intervention that is not typically indicated for a conscious client with hypoglycemia.

4. A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus asks the nurse about taking an oral antidiabetic agent. Nurse Jack explains that these medications are only effective if the client:

• A. Prefers to take insulin orally.
• B. Has type 2 diabetes.
• C. Has type 1 diabetes.
• D. Is pregnant and has type 2 diabetes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oral antidiabetic agents are specifically designed for type 2 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes requires insulin therapy as the primary treatment due to the absence of endogenous insulin production. Therefore, these medications are not effective for individuals with type 1 diabetes like the male client in this scenario. Choice A is incorrect as oral antidiabetic agents are not about preference but rather about treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as being pregnant does not impact the effectiveness of oral antidiabetic agents; they are primarily indicated for type 2 diabetes.

5. The client has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Encourage increased fluid intake
• B. Administer hypertonic saline
• C. Monitor for signs of dehydration
• D. Restrict oral fluids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is to restrict oral fluids. This is because SIADH leads to excessive production of antidiuretic hormone, causing water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. By restricting oral fluids, the nurse helps prevent further water retention and imbalance of electrolytes. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice A) would exacerbate the condition by further increasing fluid retention. Administering hypertonic saline (Choice B) is not the primary treatment for SIADH, as it may worsen the imbalance. Monitoring for signs of dehydration (Choice C) is not appropriate since SIADH leads to water retention, not dehydration.

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